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The DNA of Jesus?

canadyjd

Well-Known Member
Can anyone else see why the “implant” idea is error?
You are referring to the work of God Holy Spirit, as recounted in scripture as an “error”? It was a miracle.

God formed the baby Jesus inside Mary’s womb, without Mary’s DNA, otherwise you have the Mormon heresy of God having s:x with Mary and getting her pregnant.

I do understand that makes Mary worship a little harder to get to.

Peace to you
 

canadyjd

Well-Known Member
Does genealogy matter in scripture? Seems like a great deal of it is painstakingly recorded in scripture for it not to matter.
Of course the genealogy matters. Mary’s husband, Joseph, was a descendant of David. He was Jesus’s earthly father and, therefore, makes Jesus a descendant of David.

Does scripture ever say Mary was a descendant of David?

You are viewing this through the lens of a modern Western society worldview, instead of a first century, and biblical, worldview.

Peace to you
 

Foxmeister

Active Member
Does genealogy matter in scripture? Seems like a great deal of it is painstakingly recorded in scripture for it not to matter.
DNA is used to test if the genealogy is true. What would you be hoping to find using DNA?

The bottom line is God's Word is true. The Bible is inerrant.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
No, Mary was God’s prophesied answer in genesis.

Adam and Eve had fallen and were under the dominion of satan from then on generationally.
They and their seed were now enemies of God, not Satan.

What does God say?

“And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring he will crush your head, and you will strike his heel.”

God promised He would make the woman satans enemy and satans offspring Adam and Eve and their fallen offspring.

So the woman is not the enemy of God like Adam and Eve and their sinful offspring under the dominion of Satan.
This woman would be made sinless enemy of Satan, not under his dominion but under God’s Grace and her offspring would crush his head.

Mary was made a total enemy of Satan from her conception, because from her sinless immaculate flesh, the sinless immaculate Jesus was formed.

Jesus was the result of the total unity of Mary and The Holy Spirit.

Just as the Shekinah “ overshadowed “ the Ark of the Covenant and God dwelt therein.

The Holy Spirit “ overshadowed “ Mary at the Incarnation and God dwelt therein.

Mary is the Ark of the New Covenant, the woman made total enemy of Satan.

The Ark of the Covenant was made to God’s most exacting instructions, it was the most Holy and Sacred object the Israelites ever had. To even touch it unwarranted meant instant death directly by God.

The Ark was God’s Holy Throne to bear Him on earth.

Mary had to be Immaculate and Holy for Jesus to be made Incarnate of Her flesh and bear Him on earth.

That is a RCC dogma not biblical truth.

While it is remarkable that the term ex cathedra is not even in the Catechism of the Catholic Church (CCC), two known ex cathedra statements that have been made regard Mary's Immaculate Conception, made by Pius IX in 1854, and of her Assumption into heaven, made by Pius XII in 1950.
 

Foxmeister

Active Member
The first implication to Jesus being fully man, the son of man is that he received His humanity from Mary.
To redeem man He had to fully represent man by being man.

At the creation of Eve we see God puts Adam to sleep and fashions Eve from Adam. God didn’t create another being independently, but used the material of Adam to create Eve.

“ This at last is now bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; she shall be called ‘woman’, because out of man she was taken “ Gen 2:23

Jesus calls Mary “ Woman “, which we will talk about further.

Can you see where this is going?

We can begin to see the reversal of the creation scenario to the redemption scenario.
Jesus received his humanity from Mary? Where did humans get their humanity? From God.
 

Cathode

Well-Known Member
You are referring to the work of God Holy Spirit, as recounted in scripture as an “error”? It was a miracle.

No, I’m referring to your erroneous understanding.
You believe you understand with all your heart, but you really don’t.

God formed the baby Jesus inside Mary’s womb, without Mary’s DNA,

That’s your own erroneous idea.
The Holy Spirit formed Jesus humanity entirely from Mary’s flesh.
Jesus was begotten not made. Jesus humanity He received from Mary.

otherwise you have the Mormon heresy of God having s:x with Mary and getting her pregnant.

Ignorance, there is no question of sexual encounter. This is base ignorant stupidity.

“A virgin will conceive and bear a Son “

The Holy Spirit formed Jesus humanity entirely of Mary’s flesh, that is why he was truly man, the Son of Man and of the line of David the King who would Rule forever.

I do understand that makes Mary worship a little harder to get to.

The OP has given me the lead of this systematic walkthrough of this theology. It is Holy ground and I have not yet covered a small portion of it.

I will address Armchair Apologist mostly since he has been gracious enough to allow me to explain my original post.
 
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canadyjd

Well-Known Member
The bottom line is this…

Jesus could not have 100% of May’s DNA. That would make Him a clone. Not possible since Mary (woman) and Jesus (man) cannot have identical DNA.

Options:

1. God fertilized Mary’s egg in the womb with His own DNA through relations. That is the Mormon heresy

2. God created a sperm and “implanted” it in Mary’s womb to fertilize the egg.

3. God created the embryo fully and implanted it in Mary’s womb without her egg.

If you believe God created the sperm from nothing and implanted it, why is it “error” to simply believe God created the embryo from nothing and implanted it?

The third option avoids the extra biblical error error of Mary’s immaculate conception making her sinless.

Peace to you
 

Cathode

Well-Known Member
The bottom line is this…

Jesus could not have 100% of May’s DNA. That would make Him a clone. Not possible since Mary (woman) and Jesus (man) cannot have identical DNA.

Options:

1. God fertilized Mary’s egg in the womb with His own DNA through relations. That is the Mormon heresy

2. God created a sperm and “implanted” it in Mary’s womb to fertilize the egg.

3. God created the embryo fully and implanted it in Mary’s womb without her egg.

If you believe God created the sperm from nothing and implanted it, why is it “error” to simply believe God created the embryo from nothing and implanted it?

The third option avoids the extra biblical error error of Mary’s immaculate conception making her sinless.

Peace to you

God created Eve entirely from Adam’s flesh, she wasn’t a clone.

You obviously haven’t thought this thing through.
 

Cathode

Well-Known Member
The bottom line is this…

What made mankind the enemy of God? Sin.

What would make the prophesied woman the enemy of Satan? No sin.

An Immaculately conceived woman by the Grace of God, would be the most horrifying enemy to Satan.

This is the enmity God promised to put between Satan and The Woman.

Mary is that Woman. Mary was the enemy of Satan from her conception.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
The bottom line is this…

What made mankind the enemy of God? Sin.

What would make the prophesied woman the enemy of Satan? No sin.

An Immaculately conceived woman by the Grace of God, would be the most horrifying enemy to Satan.

This is the enmity God promised to put between Satan and The Woman.

Mary is that Woman. Mary was the enemy of Satan from her conception.
That has to be one of the most illogical attempt to support mary being Immaculate.

Since mary was born of man and all men & women sin then see was a sinner.

But by your started logic since I and all other Christians are enemies of Satan then we are all Immaculate, all without sin. So then we have to ask why do we need Jesus to pay for the sins we do not have.

I will say the RCC does go to great lengths to support all their man made dogmas.

Perhaps you can tell me why it took 1800+ years for the RCC to decide that mary was sinless? Surely if it was in scripture they would have found that information before then. And then it took another 100 years to jump to the errant idea that she was taken up to heaven body and soul.

For a group that says they are the repository of biblical truth they do not seem to be very good at understanding the word of God.
 

Cathode

Well-Known Member
That has to be one of the most illogical attempt to support mary being Immaculate.

Since mary was born of man and all men & women sin then see was a sinner.

But by your started logic since I and all other Christians are enemies of Satan then we are all Immaculate, all without sin. So then we have to ask why do we need Jesus to pay for the sins we do not have.

I will say the RCC does go to great lengths to support all their man made dogmas.

Perhaps you can tell me why it took 1800+ years for the RCC to decide that mary was sinless? Surely if it was in scripture they would have found that information before then. And then it took another 100 years to jump to the errant idea that she was taken up to heaven body and soul.

For a group that says they are the repository of biblical truth they do not seem to be very good at understanding the word of God.

Actually it’s brutally logical, scriptural and beautiful at the same time.

What you are seeing is the deeper understanding of scripture for the first time.
 

canadyjd

Well-Known Member
The bottom line is this…

What made mankind the enemy of God? Sin.

What would make the prophesied woman the enemy of Satan? No sin.

An Immaculately conceived woman by the Grace of God, would be the most horrifying enemy to Satan.

This is the enmity God promised to put between Satan and The Woman.

Mary is that Woman. Mary was the enemy of Satan from her conception.
The woman of Genesis 3 was Eve.

The enmity was between the seed of the woman and Satan. It was the seed (Jesus) that struck the fatal blow, not the woman.

There is nothing scriptural or beautiful about lifting up Mary to the level of our Lord Jesus.

Nothing in scripture supports Mary being sinless, nor a perpetual virgin for that matter.

I appreciate the respectful discourse. I’m certain will never agree on this issue.

Peace to you
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
Actually it’s brutally logical, scriptural and beautiful at the same time.

What you are seeing is the deeper understanding of scripture for the first time.

No what I am seeing is the RCC trying to justify their foolish dogmas through the twisting and misuse of the word of God.

Your response just shows that the RCC actually holds to a gnostic philosophy. The RCC thinks they have stumbled on secret knowledge.
 

Salty

20,000 Posts Club
Administrator
No, Mary was God’s prophesied answer in genesis.

Adam and Eve had fallen and were under the dominion of satan from then on generationally.
They and their seed were now enemies of God, not Satan.

What does God say?

“And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring he will crush your head, and you will strike his heel.”

God promised He would make the woman satans enemy and satans offspring Adam and Eve and their fallen offspring.

So the woman is not the enemy of God like Adam and Eve and their sinful offspring under the dominion of Satan.
This woman would be made sinless enemy of Satan, not under his dominion but under God’s Grace and her offspring would crush his head.

Mary was made a total enemy of Satan from her conception, because from her sinless immaculate flesh, the sinless immaculate Jesus was formed.

Jesus was the result of the total unity of Mary and The Holy Spirit.

Just as the Shekinah “ overshadowed “ the Ark of the Covenant and God dwelt therein.

The Holy Spirit “ overshadowed “ Mary at the Incarnation and God dwelt therein.

Mary is the Ark of the New Covenant, the woman made total enemy of Satan.

The Ark of the Covenant was made to God’s most exacting instructions, it was the most Holy and Sacred object the Israelites ever had. To even touch it unwarranted meant instant death directly by God.

The Ark was God’s Holy Throne to bear Him on earth.

Mary had to be Immaculate and Holy for Jesus to be made Incarnate of Her flesh and bear Him on earth.
Do you have any Bible references for those statement that you made?
 

Cathode

Well-Known Member
“And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring he will crush your head, and you will strike his heel.”
Genesis 3:15

“The cherubim shall spread out their wings above, overshadowing the mercy seat with their wings, their faces one to another” Exodus 25:20

“And there I will meet with thee, and I will commune with thee from above the mercy seat, from between the two cherubims which are upon the Ark of the Testimony, of all things which I will give thee in commandment unto the children of Israel.” Exodus 25:22

“And He rode on a cherub and flew: and appeared on the wings of the wind”
2 Samuel 22:11

Ark%20of%20the%20Covenant.jpg
 
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