In Exodus 9:6 we are told that "...all of the cattle of Egypt died...."
Then, in Exodus 12:29, we are told that one of the results of the death angel's coming upon the Egyptians was that all of the firstborn of their cattle were smitten.
If all the Egyptians' cattle were already dead in Chapter 9, how could there be any firstborn of their cattle be around to be smitten in Chapter 12?
I just read it in the KJV and in Exodus 9, it uses the word "cattle." In Exodus 12, the word "beast" is used.
In Hebrew, the word used in chapter 9 to describe the type of animal is different from the word used in chapter 12.
In the CJB, it says this for verse 9: 3 the hand of ADONAI is on your livestock in the field - on the horses, donkeys, camels, cattle and flocks -and will make them suffer a devastating illness.
It says this for chapter 12: 12 For that night, I will pass through the land of Egypt and kill all the firstborn in the land of Egypt, both men and animals; and I will execute judgment against all the gods of Egypt; I am ADONAI.
In the Reina-Valera, here is verse 9 (I will put the words in bold)
He aquí la mano de Jehová será sobre tus ganados que están en el campo,
caballos,
asnos,
camellos,
vacas y ovejas, con pestilencia gravísima:
In chapter 12, it says this:
Pues yo pasaré aquella noche por la tierra de Egipto, y heriré á todo primogénito en la tierra de Egipto, así en los hombres como en
las bestias: y haré juicios en todos los dioses de Egipto. YO JEHOVA.
From the various translations I'm looking at, none so far are using "cattle" twice. The cattle were struck with a grave illness.
In Hebrew, the word used in chapter 9 in different than the one used in chapter 12. It appears that the word used in chapter 12, when put together with everywhere else the same one is used, usually is a more general term and can be associated with any type of animal (looks like it could even refer to birds but I'm not sure!) while it seems that the Hebrew word that is used in chapter 9 is more specific to larger like camels and horses.
I just looked up the verses on a site that gives you multiple translations all at once and I do see where some do use the same word in both chapters.
The only thing that tells me is that ones that use the same word are doing a poor job of translation and not only is that careless, it's dangerous and very eye opening. We do have to be careful about who we trust when it comes to being able to consider a translation trust-worthy. I'd be afraid to sit under a teacher that hasn't studied languages and doesn't have a pretty firm grasp for the languages the manuscripts were written in. Yikes!
