I did not say all Jews were lost, I knew of the seven thousand who did not bow the knee to the image of Baal. And this shows what election is based upon, faith in the true God and Christ.
==Election, and faith, is based upon God's choice (Rom 9:11). Those God elects will believe (Rom 8:29-30).
No, it contradicts the unscriptural Calvinistic view of election.
==I'm not really sure what that has to do with what I said. I said that "God has not rejected Israel and He will always have a remnant from among the nation. The grafting back in of Israel will occur when "the fullness of the Gentiles has come in" (Rom 11:25-32)". My point is the section you are pointing to does not, in its context, refer to individuals. Rather it refers to the nation of Israel and gentiles as a whole.
You fail to realize that election is based on the foreknowledge of God. The very definition of foreknowledge is to know something before it takes place. (1Pet 1:2)
==You are assuming that foreknowledge means that God just passively knew who would be saved. Yet that clearly does not work in Scripture. God chose, in an active way, those who would be saved (Col 3:12, 2Thess 2:13, etc). Foreknowledge, in Romans 8:29-30, refers to God's relationship with His people. He has always known them whereas He has never known the non-elect (Matt 7:21-23). According to 1Peter 1:1-2 we are "
chosen according to the foreknowledge of God". Peter, like Paul, is teaching that God has always known who were His. It is not a passive knowledge, it is not God looking down through time and electing those who would believe (Jn 6:37), God's foreknowledge is active (1Pet 1:20-21). It is according to His will and choice.
Calvinist's do not like this verse, but it will be in the word of God when heaven and earth pass away.
==That is a false, dangerous, and insulting over generalization. Asserting that those who disagree with you don't like a part of Scripture is beyond the pale of Christian dialogue. I view election as an "in house" debate, therefore I do not resort to such cheap argumentation. Of course 1Peter 1:1-2 is part of God's eternal Word. No Bible believing Christian, Calvinist or otherwise, would deny that. We simply disagree with your understanding of it (and visa versa).
Election is based on something God knows beforehand. I have shown several verses that shows Jesus knew from the beginning who would believe.
==You are selecting certain verses while leaving others untouched. God chose Christians based on His will, plan, purpose, and foreknowledge (Eph 1:3-14, Rom 8:29-30). That is not just "something God knows beforehand". It is an active, personal knowledge that God has of His people, His sheep (Jn 10:26-27).
If it is not faith that God foreknows, then what is this foreknowledge of God? Please provide scripture to support what you think this foreknown thing is that election is based upon.
==As I have said, the foreknowledge is the person (not faith). The Bible says that "those whom He foreknew", persons are foreknown (not faith). Faith (and repentance) is a gift from God (Eph 2:8-9, 2Tim 2:25, Phil 1:29, etc) given to those who are elect (see previous). 1Peter 1:1-2 does not contradict this. Peter says that God chose believers, this is an active thing on God's part. Based on what? Foreknowledge. He does
not say that it is foreknowledge of faith, repentance, or anything like that. You are reading that into the text. Want proof that foreknowledge is not just "something God knows"? Look at 1Peter 1:20. Christ was "
foreknown before the foundation of the world", certainly you believe that there was more there than God just knowing what would happen. Foreknowledge is not a passive knowledge.
And even if you come up with something (which I doubt), it will still not do away with the fact that the scriptures say Jesus knew from the beginning who would believe and who would not.
==Seems like you are drawing conclusions before you read the arguments.
So faith is absolutely one of the things God foreknew from the foundation of the world. The scriptures told of Jesus being sold for thirty pieces of silver by Judas hundreds of years before it took place (Zech 11:12-13).
==I'm not sure the latter proves the former (or what the logical/Biblical link is). Mainly since what happened to Jesus was according to the plan of God, it was not just something God knew would happen (Acts 2:22-23, 4:23-28). Scripture does not say that God elected His people based on the fact that He knew they would believe. Scripture teaches that people believe
because they are elect (Jn 10:26-27).
I have already showed you in Romans 11 that a Jew that turns from unbelief can be graffed back into their own tree.
==As I pointed out, the passage you refer to does not speak of individuals but of the nation of Israel as a whole (Rom 11:22-29).
So, it is not my human point of view, the word of God says this directly. The reason it does not make sense to you is that your mind has been trained to think one way only.
==Since you don't know me from Adam, I think that is rather bold statement.
Rom 11:23 And they also, if they abide not still in unbelief, shall be graffed in: for God is able to graff them in again.
Those are God's words, not mine.
==Nobody denies that. I assert that you are taking those words out of context (ie...that you are ignoring what Paul is talking about).
And when the scriptures say that believers were given to Jesus, this is also God's foreknowledge being shown.
==Of course John 6:37-39 does
not say that.
John 6:44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
One of Calvinism's favorite verses. But the problem is, Calvinist's stop just one verse short. If you read the very next verse, all these other verses are explained and made clear.
John 6:45 It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the Father, cometh unto me.
There is the answer to all the preceding verses shown. Every one that comes to Christ must have been taught of God.
==The quote from Isaiah 54:13 is applied to who in this verse? "Everyone who has heard and learned of the Father" (vs 45). It does not refer to all men generically.
Now, how does a man hear and learn from the Father? The scriptures of course. It is the word of God. And who provided the word of God? God the Father of course. So, without the word of God, the scriptures, no man could come to Jesus.
==I don't disagree, I agree (to that point).
So, this is why we are said to be given of the Father. And what did our Father know? He knew who would believe his scriptures. These are his people, his sheep, the elect.
==Nothing in John 6:37-47 (etc) says anything like that at all. In fact, the section seems to refute your entire argument. It is the Father who draws and it is the Father who teaches (Jn 6:37, 45). Apart from the Father's drawing and teaching no man/woman can/will come to Christ (Jn 6:44). So it is God who is the first actor, not man. Nothing in this section of Scripture implies that God simply knew they would believe (come to Him) and elected them based on that. In fact, it directly says that such a thing cannot happen (Jn 6:44). Why? Because nobody can/will believe unless/until they are drawn/taught by the Father.
John 10:27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:
You are Jesus's sheep because you hear his voice (the scriptures). And notice Jesus knows these people. This is his foreknowledge.
==Wrong. Jesus said we hear His voice and follow Him because we are His sheep (Jn 10:
26-27). You must read verse 26 with 27.
In summary, when I compare your arguments to the Word of God I find none of your arguments convincing. I understand what you are saying, and I see your point(s), but I just don't think that Scripture agrees with your position. I'm not saying that I, or any mortal, has all the answers on the subject of election/foreknowledge, etc. However I don't see how what we do know agrees with your points.