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The Essential Unity of The Father and Jesus Christ

JamesL

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Nothing ignorant about asking you a very simple question, which you cannot answer....
I answered your question in post #6...long before you asked it. So it was ignorant of you to ask. For the third time, go read post #6

You owe it to yourself and everyone else. Stop ignorong what I've already writren. In other words, stop asking ignorant questions
 

AndyMartin

Active Member
Neither is term Trinity used, but the scriptures describe 3 person equally being God, Father/Jesus/Holy Spirit!

But there is a big difference what they teach. "God from God", or "very God from very God", is found in the early "creeds" of the Church, like the Nicaea. However, the terms themselves come from the creed of Caesarea, and the work of Eusebius, an Arian supporting Church historian. Hence, when we read of "from", it is from the Greek preposition, "ἐκ", which was used to denote the origin and derivation of the essential being of Jesus Christ, from God the Father, Who was considered as Fons Deitatis. This makes God the Father to be "unoriginated", and Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit as both "originating" from the Father, as touching their "Deity". This is clear subordinationism.
 

JamesL

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
"Jesus is very God of very God", is nowhere taught in the Holy Bible.
Well then, according to him, you are a lost person, still in your sins.

You have, after all, denied something that he considers to be very essential to saving faith. how about that?
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
But there is a big difference what they teach. "God from God", or "very God from very God", is found in the early "creeds" of the Church, like the Nicaea. However, the terms themselves come from the creed of Caesarea, and the work of Eusebius, an Arian supporting Church historian. Hence, when we read of "from", it is from the Greek preposition, "ἐκ", which was used to denote the origin and derivation of the essential being of Jesus Christ, from God the Father, Who was considered as Fons Deitatis. This makes God the Father to be "unoriginated", and Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit as both "originating" from the Father, as toughing their "Deity". This is clear subordinationism.
That is what some teach, such as Dr Grudem, for subordination by itself does not denote being less than God, its just their roles within the truine Godhewad!
 

JamesL

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
But there is a big difference what they teach. "God from God", or "very God from very God", is found in the early "creeds" of the Church, like the Nicaea. However, the terms themselves come from the creed of Caesarea, and the work of Eusebius, an Arian supporting Church historian. Hence, when we read of "from", it is from the Greek preposition, "ἐκ", which was used to denote the origin and derivation of the essential being of Jesus Christ, from God the Father, Who was considered as Fons Deitatis. This makes God the Father to be "unoriginated", and Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit as both "originating" from the Father, as touching their "Deity". This is clear subordinationism.
Creeds and councils before scripture. Nice
 

AndyMartin

Active Member
That is what some teach, such as Dr Grudem, for subordination by itself does not denote being less than God, its just their roles within the truine Godhewad!

Not really, as "subordination" within the Godhead is not anywhere in the Bible
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Not really, as "subordination" within the Godhead is not anywhere in the Bible
It is implied when Jesus states that he dioes only what Father tells him to say and do, and also in the end, when he turns over His kingdom to the Father, so that the father is all in all, and Paul ALWAYS put the Father first in talking of God and Jesus...
 

JamesL

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Think that was while he was upon the earth at that time though!
It's one of those issues that the Bible does not specifically State. That's one of the reasons I believe there's a difference between equal and co-equal
 

AndyMartin

Active Member
It is implied when Jesus states that he dioes only what Father tells him to say and do, and also in the end, when he turns over His kingdom to the Father, so that the father is all in all, and Paul ALWAYS put the Father first in talking of God and Jesus...

You are referring to the time of Jesus' Incarnation, during which time His made Himself subordinate to the Father, see Philippians 2:5-11, which is Jesus as the God-Man. But as Almighty God, the Three Persons in the Godhead a 100% coequal, coeternal and coessential.
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You are referring to the time of Jesus' Incarnation, during which time His made Himself subordinate to the Father, see Philippians 2:5-11, which is Jesus as the God-Man. But as Almighty God, the Three Persons in the Godhead a 100% coequal, coeternal and coessential.
I agree with that, as I see Him in subordination while here during his incarnation, but that was just for that time!
 

JamesL

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
IF you do deny that Jesus is really equal to God though, you will be lost in your sins!
well, if you would go read post #6, you'll have your answer

Between you and that other clown and me, we could have saved 15 posts, had you simply read what I first wrote
 
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