Both Abraham and Rahab demonstrated their faith before men. Abraham demonstrated before his son and his servant and before all the world through the written record. Rahab demonstrated to the spies and then before all israel by hanging out the red cord. But neither instance refers to the event of justification before God and that event before God was not "based on actions, beliefs and faith" as that is the essence of the false gospel as it is the truth of the doctrine of justification that is the primary content of the gospel. We do not tell people they cannot be justified BEFORE GOD except "based on actions, beliefs and faith." That is the essence of the Roman Catholic gospel they call salvation by grace without works but when it comes to definition it is defined to be exactly what the Bible condemns.
Again, if you would simply stick to the doctrine, perhaps you would not be calling my doctrine Catholic, saying I am not saved, and perhaps even...
...learning something.
But because you determine truth according to your own measure, you will continue to be a teacher for those whose doctrine and practice resemble yours, rather than a teacher of the truths of the Word of God.
Both you, and many Catholics...confuse justification with salvation in Christ. The topic has been justification, Biblicist...not the Gospel. These are two very different issues that have to be addressed within their respective contexts.
Because your truth denies the Mystery of the Gospel of Christ, you must equate justification and salvation wholesale, thus your confusion with my doctrine and that of Catholicism. You have ignored many errors pointed out to you, and it may be you refuse to accept that you could possibly be in error. So I will point out one of the errors one more time:
Romans 3:20-26
King James Version (KJV)
20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
The primary point I will make, and you will likely refuse to hear, much less address, is that you equate justification with salvation in Christ. While we understand that God's salvation bestowed on the Old Testament Saint is in fact identical from the eternal perspective as that which we enjoy, because we have the same Savior, and the same Redemptive Plan, and the same eventual disposition in the Eternal State, we also have to be careful to heed Scripture's Doctrine concerning the dispensations that are very different from each other. For example, I have many times pointed out to you that remission of sins in the Old Testament, starting in the Garden, and all the way through to the Cross...was accomplished by animal sacrifice. And that this is contrasted by the New Testament Writers always...to the Cross.
Now let's look at the equivalence of justification, just as you bring an equivalence of remission of sins in both animal sacrifice and the Cross of Christ. You say...
The Biblicist said: ↑
and according to plain common sense as God cannot view anyone justified by the standard of the Law that is still under the condemnation of the Law for sin.
The truth is, its not the standard of the Law in view here...its the standard of Biblicist.
The simple truth is that men were in fact justified by God and still under the condemnation of the Law. This is taught repeatedly throughout both Old and New Testaments. But your carnal, pulpit bred mythology teaches the exact opposite...that men could not be justified by the standard of the Law, which is to say, the Standard of God, though they were yet still condemned. Does "While we were yet sinners" ring any bells, Biblicist?
And that is a foundational element of my teaching, that though the Old Testament Saint could be justified according to the righteous standard of God Himself (because God is righteous in all He does), we don't equate that to Eternal Redemption.
The point on this verse, and towards the Doctrine of Biblicist...is that men were justified apart from the Law. That declaration of righteousness was based on grace, not reward, not of debt, but simply by the Grace of God.
21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
Do we see a difference in Paul's teaching concerning justification here? If Paul makes the statement that the Jew had the Law to show them their sin...but now the righteousness of God is manifested without the Law...
Don't you think he is making a contrast between the two?
Does this not show that...
...there is a distinction between the Law and the righteousness of God apart from the Law?
Secondly, we see that the Word of God, the Law and the Prophets is a witness to this? Which means Paul could show that which God foretold, rather than they were understanding of this righteousness, or received it?
Let's look at Paul specify that righteousness:
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
Who is Paul speaking to? Men who had the Word of God. And he contrasts the righteousness of which is by faith with the righteousness of God according to the standard of the Law. Look at it again: "But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested."
Let's put it in an understandable sequence: "But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ."
Does Paul negate the righteous standard of God set forth in the Law?
Romans 3
King James Version (KJV)
1 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
2 Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.
3 For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect?
Now, does this mean the Law had no impact? Not at all. Some believed.
But...
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
The point is...their justification was not based on the Law, its still a matter of grace.
The point is that despite the fact that the Law, both the Written Word and the Covenant, set forth the righteous standard of God, but now, Biblicist, but now, the righteousnes of God apart from the Law is...
...made manifest.
And this applies to everyone. That includes Abraham, that includes David, that includes Isaiah.
And that righteousness is specific to Faith in Jesus Christ.
24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
We are justified freely by His Grace.
That justification is through the Redemption that is in Christ.
So the declaration of righteousness under Law, and before the Law (which is Paul's point in speaking about Abraham), is contrasted with the justification which is through Jesus Christ.
25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
Propitiation is through faith in His Blood, His Death, His Sacrifice.
That is the righteous standard of God to which men must come under obedience to in this Age, now that this righteous standard has been made manifest. And if it is made manifest now, then we don't have to guess if it was made manifest in the past. And when we are told repeatedly in the New Testament that it was not...then we should pay attention.
Whose righteousness is being declared here, Biblicist, Abraham's. or Christ's?
Do we declare Abraham's righteousness for the remission of sins? No...Abraham himself was in need of the imputed righteousness of Christ.
And do you see that His righteousness is declared for the remission of sins...
...that are past? That is precisely what the Writer of Hebrews states in Hebrews 9:15.
26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
What tense is "...at this time," Biblicist?
So, to sum up, your charge of being Catholic, not being saved, and denying Scripture...fall right in with everything you say. Concocted false charges because you will not deal with my doctrine. You are forced to make up a position and then charge me with holding to it, because quite frankly, the only one you can actually debate with is yourself. You do not have antagonists, but according to you...detractors. You are the center of your posts, the doctrine and points are waiting in the wings, hoping one day you will bring them out.
Let me make this simple: the reason my Doctrine is not Roman Catholic is due to the fact that I do not equate Abraham's Justification with Eternal Redemption. This is why you confuse a conversation about justification with the Gospel of Jesus Christ, which God makes clear to us...it was a Mystery not revealed to Ages and Generations past. That is why Paul, and the Writer of Hebrews, makes it clear, that the Blood of Christ brings remission for the sins that are past. This is why the Writer of Hebrews makes the point that the Just were not made perfect, and they did not receive the Promises.
Continued...