Originally posted by Skandelon:
Bartholomew, I appreciate your answer
Hi brother!
but I don't see how that theory can have any support. If those verses you listed were talking about the 1000 year reign being the "kingdom of God" then I don't think anyone will qualify to be there. Do you? I mean who hasn't coveted for example.
Quite - that's why we need to ask for forgiveness, turn round, and live for God. But just in case people have forgotten which passages we're talking about, let's just look at one of these passages again:
"Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God." (1 Cor 6:9-10)
Remember that the standard interpretation of these verses is that they mean real Chrsitians won't do these bad things. Your comments show that the standard interpretation can't be right.
These verses seem to be saying no sinner can go to heaven on their own merit but only in the imputed righteousness of Christ.
But how do you get this understanding from the verse, or from its context? When Paul says "unrighteous" he does not just mean the unsaved. We know this because he immeadiately explains what he means by "unrighteous": those who are "fornicators, "idolaters", "adulterers", "effeminate", "abusers of themselves with mankind", "thieves", "covetous", "drunkards", "revilers", or "extortioners." And as you pointed out, believers can be guilty of these things.
This is shown by the context, to. For example, the three verses preceeding this passage read:
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But brother goeth to law with brother, and that before the unbelievers. Now therefore there is utterly a fault among you, because ye go to law one with another. Why do ye not rather take wrong? why do ye not rather suffer yourselves to be defrauded? Nay, ye do wrong, and defraud, and that your brethren." (1 Cor 6:6-8)
This CLEARLY teaches that the believers are defrauding each other. This quite probably puts these believers in the category of the "thieves", "coveteous" and "extortioners" of the very next sentence. Equally, the first sin named as disqualifying us from the kingdom is "fornication", which is revealed to have been committed by a believer in that church (in the previous chapter):
"It is reported commonly that there is fornication among you, and such fornication as is not so much as named among the Gentiles, that one should have his father's wife. And ye are puffed up, and have not rather mourned, that he that hath done this deed might be taken away from among you." (1 Cor 5:1-2)
Equally, chapters 6 and 7 go on to warn of the dangers of fornication, as if commiting this sin is a very real possibility.
So you see, 1 Cor 6:9-10 is a very REAL warning to believers, just as Romans 11 is (as you rightly point out).
I don't see eternal heaven and the phrase "kingdom of God" being two seperate things. Plus, in regard to Romans 11 how can one be "cut off" from the kingdom of God but still have eternal life in heaven? I don't get that.
There is only a problem if, as you assume, the kingdom of God is the same as heaven. But this cannot be so for several reasons.
Firstly, in the Old Testament, Daniel tells us that the kingdom of God will be set up when Christ returns and destroys the gentile empires:
"And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom, which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people, but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever." (Dan 2:44)
What kingdom does God set up immeadiately after ("in the days of") destroying the Gentile kingdoms? It is the millennial kingdom, not the new heaven and earth, and much less heaven that exists now. Equally, in Luke 21, after Jesus tells us about the tribualtion and his second coming, he states:
"So likewise ye, when ye see these things come to pass, know ye that the kingdom of God is nigh at hand." (Luke 21:31)
What kingdom is set up straight after the tribulation and Jesus' second coming? It is the millennial kingdom, not the new heaven and earth, and much less heaven that exists now. Similarly, in Luke 19 we learn:
"And as they heard these things, he added and spake a parable, because he was nigh to Jerusalem, and because they thought that the kingdom of God should immediately appear. He said therefore, A certain nobleman went into a far country to receive for himself a kingdom, and to return." (Luke 19:11-12)
Here we learn that the people were wrong in thinking that the Kingdom of God was going to appear immeadiately, and that Jesus would have to depart (ascend to heaven) to recieve it, but then return. What follows is the parable of the pounds. In verse 15 we read:
"And it came to pass, that when he was returned, having received the kingdom, then he commanded these servants to be called unto him, to whom he had given the money, that he might know how much every man had gained by trading."
Ah, so now we know Jesus will have the kingdom when he returns. But what kingdom does Jesus have when he returns? It is the millennial kingdom, not the new heaven and earth, and much less heaven that exists now. But wait - there's more in this parable. In fact, we learn that at Jesus' coming with his kingdom, he will judge his servants [unbelievers are NOT his servants!] according to what they have done with what he enrusted to them (cf. "the judgement seat of Christ"). Those who do well will be rewarded with reign in the kingdom. v.17:
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And he said unto him, Well, thou good servant: because thou hast been faithful in a very little, have thou authority over ten cities."
But to those who don't... (v. 24,26)
"And he said unto them that stood by, Take from him the pound, and give it to him that hath ten pounds... For I say unto you, That unto every one which hath shall be given; and from him that hath not, even that he hath shall be taken away from him."
This is quite different from reign in the kingdom! Indeed, a very similar passage in Matt 25 says the unprofitable servant will be cast into outer darkness! So how can he still be saved? Simple: HE will be banished to outer-darkness for the duration of the kingdom; but Rev 20 tells us that at the end of the 1000 years, death and hell will give up the dead that are in them, and they will be judged by God. Whosoever is not found written in the book of life will be cast into the lake of fire. But since this man is saved, he WILL be found in the book of life, which means he WON'T be cast into the lake of fire. So you see, he misses the kingdom, but remains saved, and enters the new heaven and earth.
I hope that helps!