Yes. Jesus is not the Father, nor is He the Spirit.Can Jesus ever be separated from God the Father?
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Yes. Jesus is not the Father, nor is He the Spirit.Can Jesus ever be separated from God the Father?
The "lost man" is not being spoken of in general here. Go to one of the previous posts which touches upon the issue of dealing with the false teachers, who like the false prophets, were among the people and claiming to be "of" the people and "of" God - but in reality were not / are not.Ok you want to go with God the Father, then God the Father it is. So 2 Peter2:1 tells us that God the Father "bought" the lost man.
You may not have studied those languages, but you are certainly not ignorant (I don't know about poor, though, 'cause I know I am).I have not studied Greek or Hebrew. All I have is a concordance. I'm a poor ignorant bloke.
2 Corinthians 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
John 10:27-30 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. I and my Father are one.
Revelation 1:6 And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.
1 John 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
The way I see it, you are attemting to separate Jesus and God in your attempts to prove that 2 Peter2:1 is not talking about the fact that lost people were also "bought with a price."
I give another verse to support this doctrine as truth:
Hebrews 10:26-29 For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins, But a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries. He that despised Moses' law died without mercy under two or three witnesses: Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?
Having consulted a greek profesor I have concluded that either you:Peter does use the same root word in 2 Pet. 2:1 that John does in Rev. 5:9. It is the same root, but not the word. And, remember that context always rules interpretation (one reason "word studies" can quickly go awry - 'dunamis' anyone?).
When Peter speaks of redemption due to the work of Christ, he uses 'lutrono' - not 'agoradzo'. 'lutrono' always refers to this type of "purchase." Had Peter used 'lutrono' in 2 Peter 2:1 - then this would indeed be a great difficulty for those holding to "particular redemption."
1. I would disagree with that statement but there is another forum that deals with Bible translation issues including the KJV only crowd.Originally posted by JMF:
1. Don't support the King James version of the Bible, which, by the way, stands alone from all other "translations" of the Bible
2. Are lying
Let me ask you:As to your charges, the exact same word is not used. The word in 2 Peter 2:1 is agorasanta and the word in Rev 5:9 is egarasas. They are different words. They both come from the same root agaradzo, as Rev 5 noted above but as he said, context determines meaning.
Yes I could. All versions read the same. There is no textual variant. I have looked at NA27, UBS4, Robison Pierpont, Stephanus (1555), Scrivener (1894). The last two are TRs (that are different from each other and both different from the Robinson pierpont Majority Text (which is different from the Hodges Farstad Majority Text).Originally posted by JMF:
Could you say this was not the same word if you used the received text (i.e. textus receptus)?