@1689Dave , the thread you created on Israel is closed, so I am taking up some of what we discussed here.
Originally you posted:
I responded:
You answered:
My primary concern with what you posited was an appearance of two economies under the New Covenant, albeit briefly. I believe that was due to my misunderstanding. I engaged with some esteemed friends of mine who are more accomplished theologians than me and one of them said:
"An argument can be made that there was an "husk" of the Old Covenant that continued for a time (about a generation or so). Depending on the intended meaning of the expression, you can debate about persons "remaining" under the Old Covenant. When the veil was rent (Mt.27:51; cf. Heb.10:20), there was no more legitimate (typological) mediation under the old forms."
He added:
"There is a period of grace (a 40yrs stay), which is an opportunity for the guilty to commit themselves to Him whom God vindicated. It's mercy, not something that can be demanded or expected."
Lastly, he said, "Israel is Christ, and in him alone is everyone who is entitled to that designation."
Are you in basic agreement with this understanding?
Originally you posted:
1689Dave said:The Law was in effect until the last circumcised before the crucifixion had died. And the destruction of 70 AD corresponds with this. So some in Paul's day were still under law but all new converts including gentiles were not. Circumcision = being a physical member if Israel. And being a physical Jew. But when God voided it, it is a worthless ceremony that means nothing. = no more physical Israel or Physical Jews. They are such by their own reconing.
I responded:
Reformed said:Please expound on this. Were these "some" under the Law because they chose to be or did God recognize that they were under the Law? Seeing as the Law was never meant to save, I am not sure what you mean by this comment.
You answered:
1689Dave said:Thanks for asking. The book of Hebrews says the Old Covenant was ready to pass away during the time of its writing. All of that generation of Jews circumcised before the hour of Jesus' death remained under the Old Covenant until death, unless they converted to Christ. As Paul and thousands of jews did. And 70 AD finished off most of that lingering generation. But, circumcision became a dead form. And no longer made one a Physical Jew or member of Physical Israel. From the replacement of the Old Covenant by the New, Israel was made up only of believers under Christ.
In OT times, Israel was both a physical (unsaved) and spiritual (saved) church state. When Jesus removed the Old Covenant and circumcision, only the spiritual saved Israel remained under Christ. It is of this group God broke off the unbelievers, grafting believing gentiles into their place.
My primary concern with what you posited was an appearance of two economies under the New Covenant, albeit briefly. I believe that was due to my misunderstanding. I engaged with some esteemed friends of mine who are more accomplished theologians than me and one of them said:
"An argument can be made that there was an "husk" of the Old Covenant that continued for a time (about a generation or so). Depending on the intended meaning of the expression, you can debate about persons "remaining" under the Old Covenant. When the veil was rent (Mt.27:51; cf. Heb.10:20), there was no more legitimate (typological) mediation under the old forms."
He added:
"There is a period of grace (a 40yrs stay), which is an opportunity for the guilty to commit themselves to Him whom God vindicated. It's mercy, not something that can be demanded or expected."
Lastly, he said, "Israel is Christ, and in him alone is everyone who is entitled to that designation."
Are you in basic agreement with this understanding?