Okay, JCF, I'll answer some of your rebuttals:
These are not my arguments they're God's. He is the one who sets the standard.
But how do your know
yours is the correct interpretation? Myriads of sects claim they are going by God's standard but their different
interpretations of this standard are mutually contradictory. How are we to decide whose (if any) interpretation is correct? (Without replying, "Well it's mine/my group's, of course", which continues to beg the question)
But Paul also commands us to follow the apostolic traditions which are from God passed down in the church by the apostles(1 Cor 11:2, 2 Thess 2:15, and 2 Thess 3:6) (bolded comments being mine from my previous post)
Yes, the God ordained apostolic traditions.
Right. This Apostolic Tradition is how the Church
determined which books (among the many circulating) actually belong in the Canon, and how to
interpret the books in the Canon. One could say the Bible is the core (or the summit) of this Tradition, but it does not exist in an interpretive (or historical) vacuum.
If you read it carefully you would see that God says not to call anyone "Father" in His place . Nothing to do with my earthly father.
And you have asserted, without proving, that Catholics, Orthodox, and Anglicans are calling their clergy "father"
in place of God which is not true.
But the Church has been worshipping on the Lord's Day, Sunday, from the beginning since that is the Day Christ rose from the dead.
You can worship on anyday you want but you can't call anyday the Sabbath.
The Church worships on the Lord's Day which is not the same as the Sabbath.
You mean like the images of the cherubim on the ark of the covenant or of the cherubim, oxen, and lions in the Temple (1 Kings 7:28)? Or is it possible that not all imagery (icons) used in worship is necessarily idolatrous?
No images or statues to be used in worship, in other words, to give them a place deity, power and reverence.
Who's giving icons the place of deity? They're windows into heaven and are treated reverently because of Whom they represent.
Are you referring to Psalm 136, for example, in which the phrase "for His mercy endures forever" is repeated 26 times? Or is not all repetition necessarily "vain"?
God's mercy does endure forever and needs to shouted from the roof tops. God says no vain repetitions of prayer. If you look up the verses that follow this statement you will find the Lord's prayer. It's like a slap in the face of God and a mockery when it's repeated time and time and time again as seen in the rosary.
So Psalms 136 is not prayer? Or is it not
vain repetition? Me thinks you are engaging in special pleading to allow folks to repeat the same Psalms (which were and are used liturgically) but not the say the Lord's Prayer on a regular basis.
Yes. Luke 1:48: "Henceforth all generations will call me blessed". If the Angel Gabriel can declare her blessed among women and highly favored (v.28), why can't we? Why should we not exalt those whom God has exalted? And who else among the daughters of Eve has God so exalted by choosing her to be His mother?
Being blessed of God is one thing but being exalted to a place of worship is another. This woman in the crowd with Jesus was not just stating that Mary was blessed she was doing more than that and Jesus knew it and corrected her.
Mary is
not exalted to a place of
worship which is reserved for God alone, but she is
honored with the highest praise
among God's saints for her unique role in our salvation as the
Theotokos. She is in real sense our spiritual mother as she brought our Salvation into the world. As Eve was the "mother of all living", so Mary is the new Eve who is the mother of all living in Christ. (see John 19:26-27)
As to Jesus correcting the woman in question, I agree but not in the way you suggest. The Greek word translated "rather" can also be translated "indeed, truly, or really", in which case Christ would have been emphasizing Mary's obedience which is an example for us to follow. Those who keep God's Word, like Mary, are indeed a part of his family.
Without personal sin, "yes". Without ancestral (or original sin), "no". Of course, God (and therefore Christ) is Mary's Savior.
The wages of sin is death. Did Mary die?
Did Enoch and Elijah die? If not, does that mean they were completely sinless? (Also, note that I was answering that Mary was
born without
personal sin) Also, the Church--Eastern and Western--has believed that Mary was assumed body and soul into heaven at the end of her life, but that she "fell asleep" first (the
Dormition). But even if she did not "fall asleep", why couldn't Mary have been translated into Heaven like Enoch and Elijah?
The word "until" doesn't prove anything either way about her virginal status subsequent to giving birth to Christ. Just as "'Sit at My right hand till I make Your enemies Your footstool'" (Matt 22:44) does not prove that after Christ's enemies are defeated He will no longer sit at the Father's right hand.
I'm not sure what you're saying but according to God's word, Mary is no longer a virgin and there is nothing wrong or unholy about that.
It's obvious you're not sure what I'm saying because my point was that it was
not clear from God's word that Mary ceased being a Virgin. Read my paragraph again--"until" does not imply one way or another a change in status subsequent to it's object (event) taking place. (Read the verse I quoted again)
The earliest tradition is that these children were Joseph's by a previous marriage, as Joseph was an older widower.
WOW! where do you draw the line in resisting the truth?
How am I resisting the truth? Nowhere in Scriptures does it specifically say that Jesus' "brothers" were the biological children of Mary or that she herself had any other children.
It's both, unless you are by implication advocating a form of the Arian heresy.
Jesus was given the title (God, judge) because of His obedience to His Father's will even unto death.
So Jesus was
not God Incarnate from conception? Jesus was
not the Eternal
Logos who became flesh and dwelt among us? If you are suggesting He was not, then you're a heretic. Jesus was not merely given the title "god", He
was and
is and always will be GOD.
And which Catholic teaching has denied the Father and the Son?
When you deny that Jesus was a man anointed of God and teach a co-eternal, co-equal godman then you deny the Father and Son relationship.
If you deny that the Son is the Co-eternal Word who is of the same essence of the Father, then you are an Arian heretic.
Yes, read your Bible, but by all means read it in context. This includes the grammatical, historical, and ecclesiastical context.
The bible as a whole speaks for itself.
Obviously not, since it can be misinterpreted in dozens of self-contradictory ways when one leaves the Apostolic Tradition and embraces private interpretation.