Featured The Holy Trinity in 1 John 5:7

As a matter of English grammar. And [in the Greek] as a matter of the Spirit's role as the Comforter, John 16:7-11.

 

Oh yes, Isaiah 48:16.

 

My interest in 1John 5:7-8 goes to my first study Bible, Scofield Reference Bible had this note: "It is generally agreed that v.7 has no real authority, and has been inserted."
That was for me my first Bible difficulty. This was in the late 60's. At the time I set the issue aside in my mind. Beginning in 1968 I found out only a few mss supported it. Was still not a settled matter in my mind.

 

I gave you the link to all of the Greek Manuscripts throught the ages. They do not carry the extra words from The Roman Catholic Latin Vulgate. These were Greek scribes who spoke Greek, thought in Greek, and wrote in Greek. They did not have a problem with their language. They did not change their Greek manuscripts to correct their grammar here. Why is that? Do you think you know more Greek grammar than they? Why did they not change their grammar for you? Their witness is against you. That would be every single Greek scribe on this earth. Those very few greek manuscripts which contains the extra words were copied from the latin Vulgate into a Greek Bible.
Where did

This will not do at all. You got this from a KJVOnlyist site. You did not quote the Church Father from an edition. What edition? What book? What page number?

 

Here is a link to a translation from the New Advent (Catholic) website. This is from the “Fifth Oration, On the Holy Spirit” – rather than "Fifth Orientation.” (I think his Orations are supposed to be after circa AD 372, and of course before his death in AD 390.)
Fifth Theological Oration (Oration 31), Paragraph 19

An earlier possible mention, circa AD 250, is in Treatise 1, On the Unity of the Church by Cyprian of Carthage. He wrote, “He who breaks the peace and the concord of Christ, does so in opposition to Christ; he who gathers elsewhere than in the Church, scatters the Church of Christ. The Lord says, I and the Father are one; and again it is written of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, And these three are one.” Cyprian also wrote, “If of the Holy Spirit; since the three are one, how can the Holy Spirit be at peace with him who is the enemy either of the Son or of the Father?” This is in his Epistle 72 To Jubaianus, Concerning the Baptism of Heretics (circa 256). Though Cyprian references this part of John’s first epistle, it is not a verbatim quotation of it. Therefore it leaves his use of it somewhat inconclusive and open to debate. (However, Cyprian does say “it is written” in the treatise on the unity of the church – at least in the available English translation.)

The Johannine Comma is mentioned in Priscillian of Avila’s Liber Apologeticus (circa AD 380):

One English translation is:

Some things about this. Priscillian wrote in Latin rather than Greek. He clearly attributes it to John. There are some interesting differences as well.

 

Another early Christian writer who may have mentioned the “comma” is Athanasius in Disputatio contra Arium. Not conclusive, he mentions baptism in the Triune name and references John saying, “These three are one.”

I did not find an English translation online (at least not yet). Here is the Greek:

[01556] Τί δὲ καὶ τὸ τῆς ἀφέσεως τῶν ἁµαρτιῶν παρεκτικὸν, καὶ ζωοποιὸν, καὶ ἁγιαστικὸν λουτρὸν, οὗ χωρὶς οὐδεὶς ὄψεται τὴν βασιλείαν τῶν οὐρανῶν, οὐκ ἐν τῇ τρισµακαρίᾳ ὀνοµασίᾳ δίδοται τοῖς πιστοῖς;
[01557] Πρὸς δὲ τούτοις πᾶσιν Ἰωάννης φάσκει·
[01558] Καὶ οἱ τρεῖς τὸ ἕν εἰσιν.

If by Athanasius this is possibly circa AD 350, but if by Pseudo-Athanasius, perhaps 100 or 200 years later. Disputatio contra Arium is not classed among the works of Athanasius by Schaff.

 

Gregory Nazianzus who was Greek quotes the Greek Bible against you. I realize you were mislead by KJVOnlyist. But you have given false testimony. Gregory quotes the Greek Bible as it is found in all of the Greek manuscripts, not like the KJV. You have given untrue witness. He is also talking about greek grammar not because of the extra words of the KJV of which Gregory was unaware and not discussing, but proving the Spirit is God and part of the trinity. You were wrong and misquoted him because you were mislead by KJVOnlys.

Gregorius Nazianzenus - De spiritu sancto [Schaff] [0329-0390] Full Text at Documenta Catholica Omnia
Page 324 section 19.

 

I proved you wrong from reading the words of Gregory. Even though you gave no reference so others could look it up for themselves. You misquoted Gregory. Look for yourself.

Gregorius Nazianzenus - De spiritu sancto [Schaff] [0329-0390] Full Text at Documenta Catholica Omnia

Page 324 section 19.

 

Exactly. Read the Gregory section for yourself. It says the exact opposite of what SavedByGrace said. Gregory quotes the section of first John like found in all Greek Bibles, not like the KJV. He is completely unaware of the extra words from the Latin Vulgate. Page 324 section 19. No Greek writer is aware of the extra words from the Latin Vulgate. This was a false attempt to try and act like a Greek Father was aware of the extra words from the Latin Bible.

 

Still seems that the bulk of the external evidence would see that passage as not being found in the originals!