Can anyone explain when the tradition of defining "The husband of one wife' (1 Timothy 3:2) as never having been divorced began? Seems only Church fellowship over 50 years of age still try to adhere to that definition, while even the Southern Baptist Association says it's up to the individual Church to use the definition that they prefer. Appreciate any clarification on this.
Sorry for the tardy response. While it can be informative to understand how a verse or passage has been understood historically by believers within the church, our first step probably should be to see what we think the intended message is for us.
2 The overseer then must be above reproach, the husband of one wife, temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, an able teacher, 3 not a drunkard, not violent, but gentle, not contentious, free from the love of money.
First, as one of the qualifications for being a leader, the husband of one wife appears to provide evidence the person walks the talk is an actual believer committed to Christ, and not a phony. So I have no problem with the judgment that the requirement applies to our life after we were saved, or said we were.
Is the idea we were the husband of one wife at a time? I doubt it,.
Is the idea that if we were married, we were faithful to our wife, and not an adulterer? Probably
Is the idea that if we were divorced after being saved as allowed by scripture and then remarried, that disqualifies us? Probably not.
I think the underlying idea is that men who are unfaithful in family life, cannot be trusted as being faithful to God. You would not want a teacher of the Word of God to be unfaithful to the Word of God.