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The just and the justifier

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JonC

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God's wrath was never against Christ, but against sin, as I keep telling you and @JonC.
Scripture teaches that God's wrath is against all unrighteousness. It is not against sinful actions but "sin" as Paul typically uses the term (principle, wickedness). It is against the sinner, the unrighteous l, the unjust (which excludes Christ). I just don't see why you can't accept the plain words of Scripture, Martin.

Do you believe that Christ's obedience, suffering and death, apart from bearing God's wrath, sufficient a price to redeem man (i.e., except Christ bear man's punishment, is He enough to justify God forgiving us)?
 

Martin Marprelate

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Martin Marprelate said:
God's wrath was never against Christ, but against sin, as I keep telling you and @JonC
Scripture teaches that God's wrath is against all unrighteousness. It is not against sinful actions but "sin" as Paul typically uses the term (principle, wickedness). It is against the sinner, the unrighteous l, the unjust (which excludes Christ). I just don't see why you can't accept the plain words of Scripture, Martin.
So you believe that God's wrath is against sin, whereas I believe it's against sin. Right! I agree! Confused
Do you believe that Christ's obedience, suffering and death, apart from bearing God's wrath, sufficient a price to redeem man (i.e., except Christ bear man's punishment, is He enough to justify God forgiving us)?
You tried this one before. :rolleyes: It's a hypothetical question. Christ did bear man's punishment (Isaiah 53:5).
 

Yeshua1

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While
The expression 'God pouring out His wrath....on Christ' is not an expression that I have ever used. I have always been very careful to maintain that the Lord Jesus never ceased to be the 'beloved Son.' I suppose that the expression comes from Revelation 16. The bowls of wrath in that chapter symbolise God's righteous judgements and punishments upon mankind. In becoming sin for us, Christ received the punishment due to us. 'The chastisement for our peace was upon Him, and by His stripes we are healed.' God's wrath was never against Christ, but against sin and sinners. Christ willingly stood in our stead, and whatever was due to guilty sinners, Christ received the equivalent. In that respect, the bowls of God's wrath were certainly poured out upon Christ on the cross. But the time of His humiliation was actually the prelude to His greatest glory (Luke 24:26; John 13:31; 17:1; 1 Peter 1:11 etc.). So the doctrine of Penal Substitution certainly teaches that Christ rose as Victor. But again, whoever believes that He rose a loser? Christus Victor is no more than a platitude unless it is defined.

I am not under the impression that Gustav Aulen believed in any form of penal substitution and I could not see that the lady theologian in your link was any better. But it is you who are endeavouring to eviscerate the doctrine and put a spin on it that I do not believe the ECFs would have recognized, and which most of the Reformers and Puritans would have rejected out of hand.
upon that Cross, Jesus assumed/took on the sins of His own people, and so as the Sin bearer, the Father dealt with Him in the same manner as all lost sinners will be in judgement. God NEVER ceased seeing Jesus as His beloved, but he dealt with Him as the sin bearer there, and so he indeed experienced the outpouring of the wrath on Him from God due to Him being seen as now in our place before Holy God.
 

Yeshua1

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You provided no explanation. Simply to provide a pile of texts with no explanation is useless. I know they're in the Bible. I want to know how you interpret them. You talk of Christus Victor theory. I am able to discuss Gustav Aulen who wrote an eponymous book about it, but you tell me to forget him. OK, but you need to tell me how you interpret Christus Victor and you haven't yet done so.

So what you're telling me is to unscrew my head and leave it on the table, and forget all those texts that speak of the righteousness and holiness of God which I keep quoting to you and you keep dodging. It is only when God's justice has been satisfied that anyone can start looking at a righteousness apart from the law. Until that point, the law remains unsatisfied.

It doesn't help at all. Would you like me to bore your pants off telling you how I became convinced of the Doctrine of Penal Substitution when I didn't even know that such a doctrine existed. I did it by reading the Bible and finding it present throughout the Scriptures..

This is, as I've said before, a false dichotomy. If there were no sinners, there would be no sin and vice versa. I don't find the truck analogy helpful, but God hates sin (Psalm 45:7) and is angry with sinners (Psalm 7:11), so if you sin (which everybody does), God will punish you for committing sin. To be sure we have to die to sin and be born anew, but that is not something we can do for ourselves, and before it can happen, our sins must be atoned for.

Someone must pay. God will not justify the wicked (Exodus 23:7 etc.). If the Lord Jesus Christ does not stand in my place and take the just punishment due my sins upon His own sinless shoulders, I must take that punishment myself. But, praise God, 'while we were still sinners, Christ died for the ungodly.' God's wrath against sin and sinners is exhausted in the case of His elect upon the sinless Christ, and God can be 'just and the justifier of the one who believes in Jesus.' The resurrection is the evidence that Christ propitiation has been effective. Christ 'was raised because of our justification' (Romans 4:25). The justification was achieved upon the cross (Romans 5:9; Hebrews 9:22; 10:12), and God raised the Lord Jesus to show that the sacrifice was accepted.

Not helpful at all, I'm afraid. I still don't understand where your theory of Christus Victor satisfies the justice and holiness of God. If you can show me that, backed up with Scripture, we may get somewhere.

On another thread, you wrote this:

"Mankind was under a curse as evidenced by our disobedience to God and magnified by the Law. The Father gave His Son for the human race, that Christ would take upon Himself our curse, knowing that He would raise Him up from the dead. The Cross was the preordained and foreknown will of God.

God laid on Christ our iniquities. He bears our sins. He makes our sins His own by taking us (flawed as we are) unto Himself. As man He suffered as we suffer and took upon Himself our curse (as one member suffers so does the whole body). Jesus took upon Himself the suffering of man and made our sickness His. And He was chastened on our behalf and suffered a penalty He did not owe but which we owed because of our sins. In this way Christ became the source of our forgiveness – because He received death for us and transferred to Himself the suffering which was due us.

If God’s wrath is to be taken away from me and I am to obtain forgiveness, someone must merit this for me because I cannot do it myself. God cannot remit the wrath towards me unless amends is made (God does not simply ignore unrighteousness). Scripture tells us that Christ mediates on our behalf. Christ became our Advocate by his own blood – His suffering and death – as He lay down His life as a sacrifice for us. His own life, His holiness and righteousness, overshadowed all of the sin and wrath He bore on behalf of mankind because He is God (
Hebrews 4-5). Sin and death was swallowed up and by His stripes we are healed."

This might serve as a basis for discussion, but I asked you before if you stand by the statement. I ask you again; is this an accurate reflection of your views?
[/QUOTE]
Apart from the PST theory, just how is the wrath of God against sin, and appeasement for that sin satisfied and made propitiated for then?
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
So you believe that God's wrath is against sin, whereas I believe it's against sin. Right! I agree! Confused

You tried this one before. :rolleyes: It's a hypothetical question. Christ did bear man's punishment (Isaiah 53:5).
No. I believe God's wrath is against the unrighteous. And I believe God to be righteous. I do not, therefore, believe that God poured His wrath upon Christ.

Why do you reject the plain meaning of Scripture? The righteous will not suffer God's wrath. God will not convict the just. Period. No need to twist and wring it to fit a theory. It means what it says.

It is only a hypothetical question to you because you assume God wrathful towards Christ. BUT Scripture speaks much of God's nature and human nature.

Do you believe that Christ's death, based on Christ's nature, excluding bearing God's wrath, sufficient a price to redeem man?

It is a fair question. Martin Luther answered "absolutely" when he declared that by Christ's divine nature He outweighed the wrath and sin against us. The early church discerned this truth by appealing to what Peter called a price greater than gold and silver. I wonder why you find it too difficult to ponder.

I suspect it is because your theory elevates man and downgrades Christ's nature to a degree unheard of prior to its invention.
 

Martin Marprelate

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No. I believe God's wrath is against the unrighteous.
Romans 1:18. 'For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all unrighteousness and ungodliness of men.......' God wrath is against unrighteousness and ungodliness, aka sin. But sin does not exist where there are no sinners. Your dichotomy is a false one.
It is only a hypothetical question to you because you assume God wrathful towards Christ. BUT Scripture speaks much of God's nature and human nature.

Do you believe that Christ's death, based on Christ's nature, excluding bearing God's wrath, sufficient a price to redeem man?

It is a fair question. Martin Luther answered "absolutely" when he declared that by Christ's divine nature He outweighed the wrath and sin against us. The early church discerned this truth by appealing to what Peter called a price greater than gold and silver. I wonder why you find it too difficult to ponder.

I suspect it is because your theory elevates man and downgrades Christ's nature to a degree unheard of prior to its invention.
No. It is because the Biblical Doctrine of Penal Substitution exalts God's righteousness and justice as well as His love. 'The LORD is well pleased for His righteousness' sake; He will magnify the law and make it honourable.' It also exalts and magnifies the perfect obedience and love to sinners of the Lord Jesus Christ. I have no problem with Luther's statement--none at all. I have a problem with your rider to it. The death of Christ outside of Penal Substitution makes no sense, as Luther knew perfectly well.

Also, to say that the Doctrine of Penal Substitution 'exalts man' and 'downgrades Christ's nature' is grossly untrue (to use no stronger term) and I hope you will stop repeating it unless you can substantiate it from the Scriptures or show where I have exalted man in my posts. You fall all too easily into these cheap shots when you run out of arguments, and that is not fitting for a moderator.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Romans 1:18. 'For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all unrighteousness and ungodliness of men.......' God wrath is against unrighteousness and ungodliness, aka sin. But sin does not exist where there are no sinners. Your dichotomy is a false one.

No. It is because the Biblical Doctrine of Penal Substitution exalts God's righteousness and justice as well as His love. 'The LORD is well pleased for His righteousness' sake; He will magnify the law and make it honourable.' It also exalts and magnifies the perfect obedience and love to sinners of the Lord Jesus Christ. I have no problem with Luther's statement--none at all. I have a problem with your rider to it. The death of Christ outside of Penal Substitution makes no sense, as Luther knew perfectly well.

Also, to say that the Doctrine of Penal Substitution 'exalts man' and 'downgrades Christ's nature' is grossly untrue (to use no stronger term) and I hope you will stop repeating it unless you can substantiate it from the Scriptures or show where I have exalted man in my posts. You fall all too easily into these cheap shots when you run out of arguments, and that is not fitting for a moderator.
I can substiantiate it by both reason and Scripture. Scripture (throught, OT &NT) teaches that if a person or nation repents and turns to God, He is faithful to forgive them their sins. It is the people/nations that are forgiven their sins.

Logic agrees. One cannot punish an action except in the context of punishing the source of the action.

Did you ever decide whether Christ's death based on His nature instead of your punishment is enough to pay for your sins?
 

Martin Marprelate

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I can substiantiate it by both reason and Scripture. Scripture (throughout, OT &NT) teaches that if a person or nation repents and turns to God, He is faithful to forgive them their sins. It is the people/nations that are forgiven their sins.
Only if you fail to quote the Scriptures accurately. 'If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins......'
'That He might be just and the justifier of the one who believes in Jesus.'
That is why, right from Genesis 3, there had to be sacrifice before there was forgiveness (Hebrews 9:22). With the death and resurrection of Christ, there is one perfect acceptable sacrifice for all time, so that it need never be repeated, but the principle remains. Christ has taken away His people's sins by paying the penalty for them in full. Isaiah 43:25 (for example) is predicated on the work of the Servant, otherwise there is no reason for Christ to have come at all.
Did you ever decide whether Christ's death based on His nature instead of your punishment is enough to pay for your sins?
Unless the Christ had a perfect human nature, He would have been unsuitable as a redeemer at all (Leviticus 2:21). Did you ever consider that if Christ's perfect nature is sufficient He need not have died at all? He could have come to earth, lived His life of total obedience and righteousness on our behalf and then have gone back into heaven. But what then of God's justice? God declares, "I will not justify the wicked." 'By no means clearing the guilty.' Christ's suffering and death are sufficient to redeem all who come to God through Him, 'Because He poured out His soul unto death, and He was numbered with the transgressors, and He bore the sin of many.'
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Only if you fail to quote the Scriptures accurately. 'If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins......'
'That He might be just and the justifier of the one who believes in Jesus.'
That is why, right from Genesis 3, there had to be sacrifice before there was forgiveness (Hebrews 9:22). With the death and resurrection of Christ, there is one perfect acceptable sacrifice for all time, so that it need never be repeated, but the principle remains. Christ has taken away His people's sins by paying the penalty for them in full. Isaiah 43:25 (for example) is predicated on the work of the Servant, otherwise there is no reason for Christ to have come at all.

Unless the Christ had a perfect human nature, He would have been unsuitable as a redeemer at all (Leviticus 2:21). Did you ever consider that if Christ's perfect nature is sufficient He need not have died at all? He could have come to earth, lived His life of total obedience and righteousness on our behalf and then have gone back into heaven. But what then of God's justice? God declares, "I will not justify the wicked." 'By no means clearing the guilty.' Christ's suffering and death are sufficient to redeem all who come to God through Him, 'Because He poured out His soul unto death, and He was numbered with the transgressors, and He bore the sin of many.'
Great example.

You have strung a bunch of passages together and declared yourself right based not on those passages (what they say or teach) but on your theory. This is what I have been pointing out all along. You are trying to use verses to support your theory instead of allowing Scripture to dictate your belief. Just accept the plain teachings of Scripture. God's wrath never rests on the righteous.
 

Martin Marprelate

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Great example.

You have strung a bunch of passages together and declared yourself right based not on those passages (what they say or teach) but on your theory.
:Roflmao:Roflmao:Roflmao This is an epic case of the pot calling the kettle black. You vaguely cited a verse of Scripture, conveniently leaving a part of it out because it doesn't fit your philosophy. Marcion would be proud of you! It is you who is trying (unsuccessfully) to mold the Scriptures to fit your viewpoint.
Just accept the plain teachings of Scripture. God's wrath never rests on the righteous.
Indeed it doesn't. But Christ was made sin so that God's righteous anger against sin and sinners might rest upon His sinless shoulders instead of ours. Praise God for Christ made sin for us! (2 Corinthians 5:21). Praise God for Christ taking the curse upon sin and sinners to Himself for us! (Galatians 3:13). No hope without these two great Biblical truths!
 

Yeshua1

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No. I believe God's wrath is against the unrighteous. And I believe God to be righteous. I do not, therefore, believe that God poured His wrath upon Christ.

Why do you reject the plain meaning of Scripture? The righteous will not suffer God's wrath. God will not convict the just. Period. No need to twist and wring it to fit a theory. It means what it says.

It is only a hypothetical question to you because you assume God wrathful towards Christ. BUT Scripture speaks much of God's nature and human nature.

Do you believe that Christ's death, based on Christ's nature, excluding bearing God's wrath, sufficient a price to redeem man?

It is a fair question. Martin Luther answered "absolutely" when he declared that by Christ's divine nature He outweighed the wrath and sin against us. The early church discerned this truth by appealing to what Peter called a price greater than gold and silver. I wonder why you find it too difficult to ponder.

I suspect it is because your theory elevates man and downgrades Christ's nature to a degree unheard of prior to its invention.
Jesus was NOT suffering the wrath of God based upon himself, as he was/is the sinless Son of God, but he became the sin bearer for His own, and so took in our place what we all deserved!
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Great example.

You have strung a bunch of passages together and declared yourself right based not on those passages (what they say or teach) but on your theory. This is what I have been pointing out all along. You are trying to use verses to support your theory instead of allowing Scripture to dictate your belief. Just accept the plain teachings of Scripture. God's wrath never rests on the righteous.
Martin is actually using those scriptures to prove the point that without the shedding of blood, there is no forgiveness for sins, and God wrath has to have a target in order to be propitiated.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
:Roflmao:Roflmao:Roflmao This is an epic case of the pot calling the kettle black. You vaguely cited a verse of Scripture, conveniently leaving a part of it out because it doesn't fit your philosophy. Marcion would be proud of you! It is you who is trying (unsuccessfully) to mold the Scriptures to fit your viewpoint.

Indeed it doesn't. But Christ was made sin so that God's righteous anger against sin and sinners might rest upon His sinless shoulders instead of ours. Praise God for Christ made sin for us! (2 Corinthians 5:21). Praise God for Christ taking the curse upon sin and sinners to Himself for us! (Galatians 3:13). No hope without these two great Biblical truths!
Ahhh...distraction.

NO ONE is denying that Christ bore our sins, became a curse for us, became sin for us, propitiated God's wrath on our behalf, that the chastisement for our well being fell upon Him, or that by His stripes we are healed.

What has been challenged is the extra-biblical theory you introduce. Why can't you just accept the plain teachings of Scripture? The righteous will never suffer God's wrath. Period.

And still....you have claimed that the Theory of Penal Substitution holds a high a view of God, but you still can't seem to decide if the early church was correct in believing Christ's death sufficient a price for man except it include man's punishment. I'm amazed at your indecisiveness here. Christ's death outweighed any wrath and sin that faced us. He is God!

Why can't you just accept the plain teaching of Scripture and set aside these theories? Are you really that much invested in extra-biblical theory?
 

Yeshua1

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Ahhh...distraction.

NO ONE is denying that Christ bore our sins, became a curse for us, became sin for us, propitiated God's wrath on our behalf, that the chastisement for our well being fell upon Him, or that by His stripes we are healed.

What has been challenged is the extra-biblical theory you introduce. Why can't you just accept the plain teachings of Scripture? The righteous will never suffer God's wrath. Period.

And still....you have claimed that the Theory of Penal Substitution holds a high a view of God, but you still can't seem to decide if the early church was correct in believing Christ's death sufficient a price for man except it include man's punishment. I'm amazed at your indecisiveness here. Christ's death outweighed any wrath and sin that faced us. He is God!

Why can't you just accept the plain teaching of Scripture and set aside these theories? Are you really that much invested in extra-biblical theory?
Jesus was sinless, and yet was to God chief sinner at same time!
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Jesus was sinless, and yet was to God chief sinner at same time!
Are you suggesting that God condemned Christ as a sinner even though He was righteous (something Scripture calls an "abomination to God")?

Break it down-

Does Scriprure say it is an abomination to God to convict the righteous? YES.

Does Scripture say Jesus is God's Righteous One? YES.

Are you saying God convicted Jesus as a sinner? Sadly, yes.
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Martin is actually using those scriptures to prove the point that without the shedding of blood, there is no forgiveness for sins, and God wrath has to have a target in order to be propitiated.
No one is denying that without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness. No one is denying that Christ propitiated God's wrath. If @Martin Marprelate is going there then he has bigger problems as it's old common ground.

What I have rejected is his theory that God accomplished that by pouring His wrath upon Christ. The reason I am rejecting the theory is that I find it both "un" and "anti" biblical. It is not only an addition to Scripture but it denies what is actually written.
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
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Are you suggesting that God condemned Christ as a sinner even though He was righteous (something Scripture calls an "abomination to God")?

Break it down-

Does Scriprure say it is an abomination to God to convict the righteous? YES.

Does Scripture say Jesus is God's Righteous One? YES.

Are you saying God convicted Jesus as a sinner? Sadly, yes.
Jesus became sin for us before the father, as when God viewed Him upon that Cross, did not see Jesus, but our sins upon Him!
Jesus always remained sinless and pure, but while on the Cross, to God was the sin bearer of mankind.
 

Yeshua1

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No one is denying that without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness. No one is denying that Christ propitiated God's wrath. If @Martin Marprelate is going there then he has bigger problems as it's old common ground.

What I have rejected is his theory that God accomplished that by pouring His wrath upon Christ. The reason I am rejecting the theory is that I find it both "un" and "anti" biblical. It is not only an addition to Scripture but it denies what is actually written.
the wrath of God is to be poured out upon this earth, and upon the lost, see revelation, correct?
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Jesus became sin for us before the father, as when God viewed Him upon that Cross, did not see Jesus, but our sins upon Him!
Jesus always remained sinless and pure, but while on the Cross, to God was the sin bearer of mankind.


Scripture states....outright states....your theory could never happen because of God's faithfulness.
the wrath of God is to be poured out upon this earth, and upon the lost, see revelation, correct?
Not upon the righteous (per Scripture, not your theory). That's one of many places where your theory falls apart.

I guess you and @Martin Marprelate have to decide - believe your theory or the plain teaching of Scripture).
 

Martin Marprelate

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Ahhh...distraction.

NO ONE is denying that Christ bore our sins, became a curse for us, became sin for us, propitiated God's wrath on our behalf, that the chastisement for our well being fell upon Him, or that by His stripes we are healed.

What has been challenged is the extra-biblical theory you introduce. Why can't you just accept the plain teachings of Scripture? The righteous will never suffer God's wrath. Period.
But the Righteous will suffer God's curse (Galatians 3:13). Think about it.
And still....you have claimed that the Theory of Penal Substitution holds a high a view of God, but you still can't seem to decide if the early church was correct in believing Christ's death sufficient a price for man except it include man's punishment. I'm amazed at your indecisiveness here. Christ's death outweighed any wrath and sin that faced us. He is God!
You are missing the point. God's righteous anger is against sinners. If Christ has not borne it on our behalf, we must bear it ourselves. This is quite apart from the merits of Christ.
Why can't you just accept the plain teaching of Scripture and set aside these theories? Are you really that much invested in extra-biblical theory?
And you need to turn down the heat. The Doctrine of Penal Substitution is clearly taught in Scripture and you getting in a tizzy about it is not going to change that. Thousands of better men than you or I have believed that, and you are just making a fool of yourself by claiming that they were all 'invested in extra-biblical theory.'
 
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