We all know that the AV translators were NOT KJVO from their comments in the preface of the AV1611, but is there anything in the TEXT besides the OT quotes found in the NT, and Luke 4;16-21, that shows the apostles were not bound to one version or translation? YES, THERE IS!
In 2 Tim. 2:9 in the KJV, Paul says,"Wherein I suffer trouble, as an evil doer, even unto bonds; but the word of God is not bound.
The Greek word rendered 'bound' here is 'deo', which means EXACTLY THAT. No amount of KJVO Scripture-twisting will make it correctly read any other way.
Attempting to LIMIT GOD to the KJV alone in English is an attempt to bind His word, and, according to Paul, who had a 'hot line' to JESUS, that's just not gonna happen.
In 2 Tim. 2:9 in the KJV, Paul says,"Wherein I suffer trouble, as an evil doer, even unto bonds; but the word of God is not bound.
The Greek word rendered 'bound' here is 'deo', which means EXACTLY THAT. No amount of KJVO Scripture-twisting will make it correctly read any other way.
Attempting to LIMIT GOD to the KJV alone in English is an attempt to bind His word, and, according to Paul, who had a 'hot line' to JESUS, that's just not gonna happen.