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You have the GREEK which was translated into KJV, ask the Greeks what it means.
Do we even have the inerrant word of God to us in English?Between the KJV and most of the popular modern translations I am of the persuasion the KJV with its well known textual issues to be more faithful as a translation of the inerrant word of God. Such as John 1:18, John 3:13, John 6:47, John 13:2, Mark 1:2, Luke 4:4, Colossians 1:15, 1 Thessalonians 5:22, to just list a few.
What is not in error being a wrong varient.Do we even have the inerrant word of God to us in English?
If we had just the Kjv, or the Nas, or the Esv, still would have the word of the Lord and be able to get all doctrines and practices still!What is not in error being a wrong varient.
Maybe. Maybe not. But can, Isaiah 55:11. God's word is inerrant and unchangable. Not the interpreter. Not any translations. Not any variant from God's word.If we had just the Kjv, or the Nas, or the Esv, still would have the word of the Lord and be able to get all doctrines and practices still!
Refers to Originals, not any translation!Maybe. Maybe not. But can, Isaiah 55:11. God's word is inerrant and unchangable. Not the interpreter. Not any translations. Not any variant from God's word.
What do you think Psalms 119:89 means?Refers to Originals, not any translation!
Not what KJVO take it to being!What do you think Psalms 119:89 means?
Oh come on. They weren't geeks. They were British.You have the GREEK which was translated into KJV, ask the Greeks what it means.
Maybe. Maybe not. But can, Isaiah 55:11. God's word is inerrant and unchangable. Not the interpreter. Not any translations. Not any variant from God's word.
Yea, Hebrew version... translated in original Hebrew and Greek. Can you speak them and who’s your Rabbi? I studied under one for two years. Doesn’t mean I’m proficient.Do we even have the inerrant word of God to us in English?
Neither are they in the Hebrew (19 words), but in English. Are both true to what God actually said? The question is a question of translation and not all the added words in the KJV English are italicized.3-7 (May I call you 3-7)?
Here is Is 55:11 in two versions:
Is 55:11 so is my word that goes out from my mouth: it will not return to me empty, but will desire and achieve the purpose for which I sent it. (NIV)
So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing where I sent it. (KJV)
NOTE: The italicized is so in the KJV
the bold "s" is not capitalized in the NIV
Underlined indicates word is different from KJV
Color red - indicates in KJV - not in NIV
So - we see quite a variant --
1) is there a actually a difference in meaning
or
2) just translated a bit different - with the same meaning in essence?
Thus: is one wrong and the other is the only correct one?
Is there really a difference between the Kjv and say Nas when one says the Lord Jesus, other Christ Jesus for example?3-7 (May I call you 3-7)?
Here is Is 55:11 in two versions:
Is 55:11 so is my word that goes out from my mouth: it will not return to me empty, but will desire and achieve the purpose for which I sent it. (NIV)
So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing where I sent it. (KJV)
NOTE: The italicized is so in the KJV
the bold "s" is not capitalized in the NIV
Underlined indicates word is different from KJV
Color red - indicates in KJV - not in NIV
So - we see quite a variant --
1) is there a actually a difference in meaning
or
2) just translated a bit different - with the same meaning in essence?
Thus: is one wrong and the other is the only correct one?