The KJV: the word of God or the very wordS of God?

Answer each question at a time.

I gave you the opportunity to answer your own question, it is found to be the only way one will accept the Truth, you know?

 

Did He do the same for the Bishop's Bible, Geneva Bible, or New King James translators?

Also, why did He not preserve His words from printers errors?

 

Plain ol'Ralph: if you mean did the translators originate the message, No, but the Lord did most assuredly inspire the compilation of the KJB to relate, finally, to the English speaking people the Mind of Christ.

Can you PROVE He did so in English ONLY in the KJV, or is this simply more KJVO guesswork and fishing stories?

(I'll get to the rest of your guesswork tomorrow, God willing...gotta go to work!)

 

I didn't say it did.

BTW there are no iota in the King James Bible, only in the original language manuscripts.

HankD

 

The King James Bible is the very word(s) of God down to the last "jot and tittle". If He said that neither one jot or tittle of His Word shall pass away then certainly that means He can preserve His Word perfectly (word for word) for all eternity even in the english translation.

 

Why then did those jots and tittles change since 1611? And where were they in 1610?

 

Broken Clay,

Proof please using scripture that tells me KJV and which KJV is perfect that falls under your "one jot or tittle" theory.

Things that are different are not the same. The KJV family do not 100% agree therefore only one can be perfect. Now which KJV? 1611,1613-1873,1982,1995(KJ21 I think) or TMB?????

 

Greetings Clay. Since each edition of the KJV has different words, letters, and punctuation, which edition is perfect down to the "jot and tittle?"

 

Proof please with scripture David J. and ilk that any of the MV's are perfect, and if not why do you use a bible you don't believe is perfect. I personally believe mine is perfect. "But without faith it is impossible to please him..." Hebrews 11:6

 

Which edition do you use Clay that is letter for letter, word for word, punctuation mark for punctuation mark perfect?

 

what edition do you use C4K that you consider perfect?

 

Broken Clay, we don't need scriptural proof, for we do not believe that as a doctrine. Was there a perfect Bible in 1610? If so, why did the KJV deviate from it? And why does today's KJV differ in jots and tittles from the first edition?

Sincerely,
"ilk"

 

Please answer my question Clay - I never claimed to have a "jot and tittle" perfect English translation.

You claimed it - which one is it?

 

Exactly natters, the key words you used were "don't need scriptural proof" and "do not believe that as doctrine". Either the Bible is your final authority as a christian or not. And if not why bother?

 

I have a feeling Clay is going to avoid a clear answer to the very simple question:

 

then you're feeling the wrong thing. I didn't want to get caught up in the 17th century debate of what exact year the 1611 translation was corrected of typographical errors, not because i fear it, but because it's academic and i'm trying to make a point about faith.

 

answer my question C4K please, what bible do you use? and why?

 

So you don't have the answer.

Too bad God wasn't strong enough to protect His Word from printer's errors.

FYI - here are the two most popular 17th century editions- which one is perfect, and why?

1762 Camdridge
1769 Oxford

There are different so both can't be perfect.

 

maybe C4K is avoiding a question of faith?