The KJV: the word of God or the very wordS of God?

99.9% of the posters here know what I use - please share with us which KJV is perfect and why so that I can be sure that I am using the perfect Bible.

 

How dare you impune the omnipotence of God as part of your desire to boast of your "human wisdom" and knowledge of bible translations. Shame on you!

 

The Bible is my final authority. The Bible says nothing about the exclusive perfection of any specific translation.

Question of faith? I have faith that God's word is preserved and authoritative and perfect in many translations: before, after and including 1611.

 

So, you are saying that He has preserved it in the English language. How about all of the other thousands and thousands of languages in this world? (By the time you look at dialects that make languages from one tribe to another tribe in an out-back area; you have dialects that are so different that the tribes cannot understand each other.

So, you are saying every single one of these languages have a perfect translation?

Is there a perfect translation in Greek and Hebrew and where is it?

What was the perfect English translation in 1570?

Please answer these as specifically as possible if you are going to make your point.

 

how sad we as christians have to destroy each other to try and make ourselves appear scholarly to others.

 

If God preserved the translators from error, why did He not preserve the typesetters from error.

Please let me know which perfect KJV to use.

 

You have launched all the attacks my brother, this was your statment

All I want is an honest answer to my question.

 

How sad pride will not let you admit your error or even answer some simple questions.

 

O.K, let's say that those of you who don't believe that any bible is 100% perfect word for word are right - you win. Now, let's discuss what that means about God, why He could not preserve His word perfectly. I don't have all the information about each translation. You've got me on that - so you can soothe your ego. But let's have a discussion on the implications of you being right (which i don't believe you are)

 

You have admitted that He allowed printers errors in the early versions of the KJV so you do agree in a sense that "God could not preserve His Word perfectly".

 

Don't you understand? We do not believe that God could not preserve His word perfectly. We believe that God preserved His word perfectly, in a manner that is different than your assumption of how God did that. In your assumption, "God could not preserve His word perfectly" prior to 1611. Our view is logically consistent on both sides of 1611.

 

no i do not agree

 

Please explain this quote of your then

You admit here that the 1611 edition had errors.

 

As a moderator, I will not allow a poster to "personally" attack another poster. We are all suppposed to be Christians here, so we do not allow this to happen.

If you can show me a personal attack, I will edit it.

Otherwise, we do allow debate of the subject matter. There is nothing wrong with this, it is healthy that we have a reason why we believe the way we do, otherwise we might as well just be in a cult.

The title of this thread allows discussion regarding the translation issues of the KJV (which ever version you want to pick, or all).

I would suggest that you have thick skin and be prepared to provide proof of what you believe. (I'm saying that from a personal point of view, not as moderator.)

The best debates occur when the posters provide documented proof. If you cannot do this, you are simply sharing an opinion. Opinion doesn't buy anybody anything and makes evangelism even harder.

You need to show us your proof why the KJV is perfect. You need to show us why it was translated into English as perfect. You need to show us why the English language is so priviledged to get that perfect Bible and why you think it happens to be the KJV (since there have been many versions).

Believe me, the posters of this area have heard all of the KJVo stories. So, if you can come up with something new. You might be more persuasive.

Just trying to help you understand the dynamics of the translations debates and discussions.

Thank you,

 

i never said that He couldn't preserve His Word before 1611 - you said that

 

Then explain to me that if he did (in the way you mean) why the KJV deviated from it in more than just jots and tittles.

 

You did admit above that the 1611 version had errors that had to be corrected. It also had the apocrypha.

My guess is that you hold the Oxford KJV1769 as perfect, but even that has had slight changes in various printings.

If you are going to claim "jot and tittle" perfection for an English version you are going to have a hard time supporting.

Do you hold "jot and tittle" perfection for other language versions?

 

I'll give you a good reason Phillip - "FAITH" period. Explain to me with logic why Christ saved you - you can't. By faith we are saved. I don't have all the answers but i know that certain things are by faith and faith only. And if that reason doesn't satisfy your groups quest for "logic" then so be it. Have at your pharisecal endeavors.

 

I have faith in God's Word. I even have faith in the KJV translation of God's Word. God's Word simply doesn't say what KJVO's believe. It does not say that the KJV will be the "word for word" perfect Bible. Therefore, this thought must come from men.

My faith is in God and His Word, not men and theirs.