I've already confessed that I don't.
Please read above.
So you have no reason to believe the KJV/TR is the word of God?
Because the people of the world accepted the KJV for quite awhile, and have used it to point to and say, " that is God's word."
Just as, before the KJV, they pointed to the Bishops' Bible, and before that the Great Bible and before that the Cranmer Bible, and before that the Geneva Bible and before that the Tyndale Bible and said the same thing. Were they wrong? Did God leave them without the word of God until the KJV came along? Why would God do that?
You don't believe in standards?
I would hope that you do.
Why would you suggest such a falsehood? I have a standard and have posted the criteria by which I established that standard, which you continue to refuse to do.
What I'm saying is, I want a standard.
Please point me to a reliable one so I can continue on, instead of choosing one of probably 25.
I have already posted my standard,
The Greek Text According to the Byzantine Textform edited by Robinson and Pierpont.,
Please tell me that
1 John 5:7 is either God's word, or it isn't.
Even though the vast majority of the manuscript evidence mitigates against it, I have no problem with it as it does not introduce a heterodox doctrine.
If it is, then throw out the ones that don't include it.
I don't now have the authority to throw out that which does not belong to me. To do so would be immoral and unethical.
If not, then throw out the ones that do.
I don't now have the authority to throw out that which does not belong to me. To do so would be immoral and unethical.
Frankly, I'm tired of the confusion.
I can under stand that. You have little or no understanding of how we got our English bible so you just pick one at random and claim that all others are wrong. But you do that without any valid criteria for your choice.
With respect, I've studied the subject for a long time.
So have I. For over 50 years.
I may not have language skills that include Greek and Hebrew, but I understand English very well.
I do have language skills that include both Greek and Hebrew, and am fairly well versed in English too.
And all those language skills have done is reinforce my understanding of the absolute infallibility of the bible as the word of God.
And I can also answer the question "By what criteria do I set my standard for the word of God."
Unfortunately, you cannot, which is why you keep dodging the question. As soon as you come to understand your position does not have a leg to stand on, then you will be ready to study the issue in depth regarding Hebrew and Greek texts and manuscript evidence, and have your faith in the bible as the word of God greatly strengthened.