The Long Ending of Mark and The Woman Caught in Adultery According To The Byzantine Text

[Van]

Again, as I have said, there are not "numerous endings," as you have said. There are only three, really, and the "shorter ending" is rejected by both sides, meaning that (once again) we leave the disciples frightened and trembling (neither of the "added" endings), or we have the resurrection of Christ and the Great Commission in the only ending that makes logical sense, the longer ending from the Byzantine textform.

To repeat, the numerous variations after verse 8 are found in post #11.

 

[Silverhair]

Since we do not have the autographs all we can do is make the best guess we can based on the information we have.

Except for vss17 & 18, which can lead to some errant views, I see no problem with the longer ending.

 

[John of Japan]

To repeat, the numerous variations after verse 8 are found in post #11.

I don't think you read Wallace's note, or if you did you didn't understand it. (No offense intended.) In Post 79 I break it down. I'll do so again.

1. Wallace thinks Mark 16 should end at v. 8 with the disciples terrified and trembling.

2. There is a shorter ending which Wallace quotes, but nobody really accepts that ending.

3.There is the longer ending of the Byzantine textform, which fits the genre of "Gospel" quite well.

So there are only three possible endings, yet you say "numerous." Here is the definition of "numerous" from Oxford: "great in number; many." (numerous definition - Google Search) How do you get "great in number" from three?

 

[Conan]

The Long Ending is not only in the Byzantine Text form, but also all independent, Western, and even other Alexandrian witnesses. 1650 or so manuscripts .

 

[Van]

I could put a copy of Mark ending at verse 8 and make 1651 copies, thus the no ending would have the most numerous support.

The claim there are only three endings is false. An ending with the long is different from an ending with the long and the short. An "no ending past verse 8" ending is different from all the combinations of short and long. Post 11 enumerates many of the combinations.

Here is the NET listing of no ending witnesses:

• Greek manuscripts (e.g., א, B, 304).
• Syriac versions (sys).
• Possibly Samaritan texts (sams).
• Armenian manuscripts (armmss).
• Manuscripts associated with Eusebius (Eusmss) and potentially from Jerusalem (Hiermss).

 

[Conan]

I could put a copy of Mark ending at verse 8 and make 1651 copies, thus the no ending would have the most numerous support.

The claim there are only three endings is false. An ending with the long is different from an ending with the long and the short. An "no ending past verse 8" ending is different from all the combinations of short and long. Post 11 enumerates many of the combinations.

Here is the NET listing of no ending witnesses:

• Greek manuscripts (e.g., א, B, 304).

You couldn't get 1840 some scribes to delete or insert anything. These are all independently copied. Very, very, very rarely can you find a manuscript copied from another. In thousands of manuscripts it's what 5 or 10 copied from one another.

• Syriac versions (sys).

There are 2 "old Syraic" version manuscripts.
Doesn't one include the longer ending? Are you certain one is missing or is it estimated to be missing? Certaily the Peshetta includes it.

• Possibly Samaritan texts (sams).

possibly?

• Armenian manuscripts (armmss).

Some Armenian manuscripts don't, some do?

• Manuscripts associated with Eusebius

Doesn't Eusebius claim the ending as legitimate in the discussion?

• (Eusmss) and potentially from Jerusalem (Hiermss).

You don't have any Greek Manuscripts from Jerusalem that lack the ending. If you did they would be named.
Accuracy of information is what we are after. Your beliefs are fine.