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The meaning of Repentance

AustinC

Well-Known Member
I am NOT, What I am saying, is what the Bible Teaches, that a sinner must REPENT and BELIEVE in the Gospel, BEFORE they can be saved, born-again, become a Child of God. Repentance from sins is not AFTER salvation!
Paul must have misspoke then.
Why would he say "But God, being rich in mercy, because of the great love with which he loved us, even when we were dead in our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ—by grace you have been saved—", and not say, like you do, "But, man, repenting and believing in God, caused God to save them so they wouldn't be dead."???

I would love for sbw to explain how Paul got it wrong.
 

Martin Marprelate

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I am NOT, What I am saying, is what the Bible Teaches, that a sinner must REPENT and BELIEVE in the Gospel, BEFORE they can be saved, born-again, become a Child of God. Repentance from sins is not AFTER salvation!
Well in that case I owe my Reformed brethren here an apology. 'But the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned' (1 Corinthians 2:14). Without being born anew, one will neither see not enter the kingdom of God. God must first open the heart of a sinner before he can repent or believe (Acts of the Apostles 16:14).
 

SavedByGrace

Well-Known Member
Well in that case I owe my Reformed brethren here an apology. 'But the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned' (1 Corinthians 2:14). Without being born anew, one will neither see not enter the kingdom of God. God must first open the heart of a sinner before he can repent or believe (Acts of the Apostles 16:14).

Do you guys even understand what you write? If you would read the CONTEXT of both 1 Corinthians 2, and Acts 16, you will see in the former case, that Paul is writing to those who are ALREADY Christians, as we can see in verse 18, that these "have the mind of Christ". Paul is arguing against FLESHLY Christians. In the latter case, it says in verse 14, that Lydia "worshipped God", BEFORE she even heard the Gospel. So she was already SEEKING the Lord BEFORE!
 

JamesL

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
The Greek word for repent -- I can't read the language -- means to think differently or afterward. In both the ESV and the KJV, Strong gives this as the definition. So then, doesn't the context of the passages in the Bible determine the meaning of repent? Repent doesn't mean to turn from sin, but to change your mind. And about what? Doesn't that depend on the context?
You need to distinguish between what a word means and how that meaning finds application.

No, "meaning" is not determined by context.

There is a semantic range, wherein all possible meanings are established already.

Application of "which meaning" is determined by context.
 

AustinC

Well-Known Member
Do you guys even understand what you write? If you would read the CONTEXT of both 1 Corinthians 2, and Acts 16, you will see in the former case, that Paul is writing to those who are ALREADY Christians, as we can see in verse 18, that these "have the mind of Christ". Paul is arguing against FLESHLY Christians. In the latter case, it says in verse 14, that Lydia "worshipped God", BEFORE she even heard the Gospel. So she was already SEEKING the Lord BEFORE!
The Samaritans worshipped God. Muslims worship God. Jehovah's Witnesses and Mormons worship God. Jesus, however, never knew them. This is Lydia, before God sent Paul and opened her heart.
 
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