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The moral decay fallacy

Tim

New Member
Originally posted by Dr. Bob Griffin:
Thought: The phrase "last days" obvious can mean the general era AFTER (hence, later or last) the time of Christ. It also has a very specific meaning, dealing with the time JUST PRIOR to the return of Christ for His kingdom.

This dual meaning of a word/phrase lends itself to misunderstanding and takes astute biblical study to be sure of WHICH of the meanings is appropriate each time the phrase in used.
So it takes an "expert" to understand biblical eschatology--for the words don't always mean what they seem to mean.

Turnabout is fairplay.
Blessings Dr.Bob,

Tim
 

TC

Active Member
Site Supporter
I read the book of Habakkuk today, and he lamented over the same things that we do today. Human nature hasn't changed. It is just more pronounced because of instant communication (internet and cnn, ect.) There are many examples where God's people have cried against the total depravity of man. We're no different today

shalom
 

Glory Bound

New Member
The question was asked a while back regarding the scope of the time period of which we're evaluating this "moral decline". Since creation, or from a more recent starting point?

For a lot of us, we can clearly testify that morality in the US has declined over the last 50 years. We've lived through it (or most of it). We know the things that were right and proper years ago do not match the things considered right and proper today. How many things are considered acceptable today that would have been totally unacceptable a few decades ago?

The operative word is morality. Not sin. Sinners can still live a relatively moral life.

It's obvious to me that the moral fiber of our nation (US) has changed significantly for the worse in the last 50 years. I believe this change is what most people refer to when they mention the moral decline.
 
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