The Nature of "called" in 1 Cor. 1:26-31

Same basic word used by Paul in Ephesians 1:4. This word is composed of two words and is the common term used by Paul and other writers for being "chosen to salvation" by God before the foundation of the world. So, what you say above is a nothing burger!

Neither is your Greek grammar very good (I have 5 years of college and seminary classroom Greek under SBC phd's. Don't claim to be a scholar but I am well versed). The prepositional phrase "kata sarka" destroys your whole interpretation as he is contrasting these "brethren" to those "according to the flesh" which excel in these things. In other words, God selected from the lost who excel in such things very few "brethren" that excel in such things (Saul of Tarsus would be such a exception). Again the immediate context is salvation and why none can boast in his sight with regard to being "in Christ" because it is "of God" they are in him.

 

If I had not said that you would have challenged my right to speak about Greek.

Then, you don't know Greek at all because the Greek word for "calling" is in the text. It is the fourth word in the Greek text of verse 26 [Klasin] properly translated "calling." Very same word used by Peter in the following text with election:

Wherefore the rather, brethren, give diligence to make your calling and election sure: for if ye do these things, ye shall never fall: - 2 Pet. 1:10

 

First, I never said that it was in the Greek text. That is your complete assumption. I simply quoted the English text. Second, it is placed in italics to show that it is not found in the Greek text. Why then include it? The translators included it because the sentence demanded its inclusion to make sense. It's omission is an ellipses but necessarily inferred and demanded by the sentence to provide the complete sense intended by Paul. Paul points to their "calling" and then states that "not many" of this classification or that category of mankind were included in that calling. His very argument demands the calling by God has LIMITATIONS. The obvious point Paul is making is that "not many" of this or that are "called. BUT God hath chosen." The very nature of Paul's argument demands the inclusion of "called" and the translators could see this clearly.

Not only so, but other modern translations see this is clearly an ellipses (ommission) that the very nature of the sentence requires to make its meaning clear:

NIV - Brothers and sisters, think of what you were when you were called. Not many of you were by human standards; not many were influential; not many were of noble birth. - 1 Cor. 1:26

ASV - For behold your calling, brethren, that not many wise after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, [are called]

WEY - For consider, brethren, God's call to you. Not many who are wise with merely human wisdom, not many of position and influence, not many of noble birth have been called.

The above are just a sampling of many other translations that see the obvious intent of Paul's statement as it is this "calling" that he is limiting ("not many") from various categories/classifications "according to the flesh" meaning the majority in these classifications were NOT CALLED and were NOT CHOSEN by God to show that such characteristics were not determinate in putting them "in Christ" but their placement "in Christ" was purely "OF GOD" and due to NOTHING that characterizes them.

The subject is their "calling" and the words "not many" show obvious LIMITATION in each classification/category listed. The prepositional phrase "according to the flesh" shows he is not comparing brethren with brethren but referring to their previous new birth status among classifications of lost persons. The phrase "BUT God hath chosen" defines who and how the limitations were determined.

Your view does not fit the context! Verses 29-31 define Paul's objective for what he says in verses 26-28. Your view makes no sense when the overall contextual subject is salvation and the objective of Paul is to remove any human claims before God for how they became "in Christ" and thus verses 26-28 are negatives or denials for claims to have obtained "in Christ" status due to anything found in them.

Your explanation is false and bogus. These terms describe CLASSES of humans or CATEGORIES "according to the flesh." That is the natural interpretation and yours is completely forced upon the text.

I just showed you the word "calling" is in the text and is the very same word identified with "election" by Peter (2 Pet. 1:10) as it is here by Paul. I have showed you that LIMITATION is demanded by the words "not many." I have showed you the determinate cause for those called out of those categories "acccording to the flesh" was due to election or God's choosing "But God hath chosen" not according to their choosing as Paul's climatic aim is to show NONE have anything to claim for being "in Christ" instead "But OF HIM are ye in Christ."

Anyone can do what you are doing, slice and parse parts of the text in order to avoid and ignore the obvious overall contextual flow and the very clearly stated goal of the text.

 

Wrong! It is demand by the very implications of the wording.

Wrong! it is the equivilent in meaning to "not many" and anyone can see that who is not biased.

Wrong! It is placed squarely in the context of salvation as anyone with eyes can see if they are not wearing blindfolders. Moreover, the objective of Paul is clearly stated that he has been denying anything of man that is causal for those chosen to be "in Christ" and verse 30 describes all the major facets of salvation

Wrong again! Those within the area of "calling" and "chosen" are not only the saved but their salivation is explicitly stated to be "But OF GOD ye are IN CHRIST, who is MADE UNTO US"

Completely false as "chosen" modifes "calling" refering to people as the words "not many" demands. The classifications or categores are out of which "not many" PEOPLE with such classifications are "chosen."

You are simply not interested in objective truth as that is clear from your remarks. You simply want to argue nonsensical things that the context and proper exegetical based interpretation not only repudiates but makes foolish.

 

1. Preceding context that leads to this passage is about gospel salvation:

18 For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God.
19 For it is written, I will destroy the wisdom of the wise, and will bring to nothing the understanding of the prudent.
20 Where is the wise? where is the scribe? where is the disputer of this world? hath not God made foolish the wisdom of this world?
21 For after that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe.
22 For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom:
23 But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness;
24 But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God.



2. Inclusive in this passage is salvation:

But of him are ye in Christ Jesus, who of God is made unto us wisdom, and righteousness, and sanctification, and redemption:

3. Continuation of denial of anything in any man, including the preacher of the gospel for being "in Christ"

And I, brethren, when I came to you, came not with excellency of speech or of wisdom, declaring unto you the testimony of God.
2 For I determined not to know any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified.
3 And I was with you in weakness, and in fear, and in much trembling.
4 And my speech and my preaching was not with enticing words of man’s wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power:
5 That your faith should not stand in the wisdom of men, but in the power of God.

Any unbiased reader can easily see that the entire context in which the passage is encapsulated is about salvation.

 

24 But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God.
25 Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men; and the weakness of God is stronger than men.
26 For ye see your calling, brethren, how that not many wise men after the flesh, not many mighty, not many noble, are called:

The context shows that "called" is under consideration as it is first introduced just two verses prior to verse 26. Also, verses 24-25 introduce the purpose of limited calling as the words "NOT MANY" modifies "calling" thus a LIMITATION is in view instead of a "calling" that is universal and without limitations.

Moreover, the very statement in verse 26 requires a limitation in calling from the stated categories/classifications from among "men after the flesh."

So, the word "called" in verse 24 is part of the introduction to the "calling" in verse 26.

 

"not many wise men after the flesh" These are all Nomimative MASCULINE plural nouns instead of gender neutral. Also, the terms "noble' and "mighty" refer to HUMAN BEINGS as such terms are never used of inanimate things. He says "YOUR calling" referring to their PERSONAL calling.

Moreover in verses 24-25 he has already introduced two of these classifications as descriptive of HUMAN BEINGS:

For the Jews require a sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom:
23 But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness;
24 But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God.

Verse 24 demands "called" refers to a LIMITED number out of the two categories of "both Jews and Gentiles" and verses 26-28 further demands their is a LIMITED number from other categories that characterize both Jews and Gentiles such as "nobel" and "wise" and "mighty" etc.

 

There is no sense in continuing a discussion with you when you spue this kind of nonesense. The limitation "not many" is contextually determined by God's choice, as God determined not to choose many of each classification and he states the reason he did not so choose - vv. 29-31.

 

verse 26 does not stand alone as it has a clear introduction in verses 19-25 where the word "called" is found and those "called" are out from among two clearly stated groups of men (Jews...Gentiles). Again the "called" are not all inclusive but LIMITED as they are "called" out from AMONG those two groups of mankind and not equal or inclusive of all them. Again, a clear LIMITED calling.

This introduction (vv. 19-25) begins the LIMITATIONS with regard to Jews or Gentiles, but then proceeds into the very thing that the lost world make their boast (noble, wise, etc.) and what they despise.

I believe you when you say you cannot see these things as God must grant that not I or any other man.

Of course, it is your choice to interpet verse 26 any way you like. However, your interpretation is nonsensical when verses 19-25 are considered honestly because they completely repudiate such your interpretation as those verses make it clear Paul is specifically addressed those God "called" (v. 24) out from among JEWS and GENTILES and called out from among the kind of people whom both lost Jews and Gentiles regard as beneath them.

I am placing you on my ignore list as you have shown that you cannot even reasonably discuss the obvious. I don't go to the scriptures in order to defend a pre-disposed view, but my position was obtained by going to the scriptures and reading out what the Lord wrote into the text. I once held your views and just as adamently because I approached the Word just as you do with a preconcived bias.