Jim1999 said:
How is Jesus sinless when born to a sinful woman, called Mary? Was she also sinless? Did she miss original sin?
Cheers,
Jim
Mary was used by God in one time in one place in history for a purpose. She is not to be exalted above measure. She simply was a vessel used by God. God could have used any other virgin young lady at that time but he chose to use Mary; after all he had to choose someone.
To use an illustration (as inadequate as it may be), Mary's womb was simply flesh. It was made of atoms and molecules. Meat, in and of itself is not sinful. If you cut yourself so that a piece of skin comes off, are you throwing away sin along with the skin? Is their sin in the skin? Does sin reside in the flesh--in every piece of dandruff that you shed, in every hair that falls out, in every nail that is cut, in every drop of blood that is shed with every small cut, etc. Is that what the sin nature is all about? Does it reside in my flesh, per se? If that is true, then if I go on a diet my sin nature will decrease, right? :laugh:
But that is not the case. Small guys are just as depraved as big guys.
The sin nature does not reside in the flesh, per se. The sin nature had nothing to do with Mary's womb. Mary was a vessel used of God.
Into that womb came a child which was conceived of the Holy Spirit.
"In Adam's fall; we sinned all." (McGuffey's Reader)
Our sin nature is passed down through Adam. Because Christ was conceived of the Holy Spirit and not of Joseph (or a man), there was no sin nature to inherit. And therefore from conception to death he was fully man--throughout the whole process. In every way one can look back and say that Christ was completely man. From conception onward. Thus the necessity of the virgin birth--he did not inherit the sin nature, and could not have inherited the sin nature, else he would have been a sinner and would not have been able to die for our sins.
The "original sin" of Mary is a red herring. The sin nature is passed through Adam.