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The number one reason to use a KJV or RV or ASV with your modern Bible.
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GodisgraciousR325
Member
Morning,
That's a amazing point.
That's a amazing point.
GodisgraciousR325
Member
Thanks, I feared that was the assertion. The idea we should accept all the arcane, erroneous translation choices, on topic of the TR underpinning is to my mind ludicrous.
GodisgraciousR325
Member
If we look back in time, we see people making choices of what they saw as the best available. That does not make historical choices inviolate or the best available now.
No need to continue discussion, as I expect neither of us thinks the other side could possibly be right.
GodisgraciousR325
Member
I am not accepting any text or version thay attacks my Lord Jesus ChristIf we look back in time, we see people making choices of what they saw as the best available. That does not make historical choices inviolate or the best available now.
No need to continue discussion, as I expect neither of us thinks the other side could possibly be right.
Yes, you think your view is right and every other view, such as mine is wrong.
Perhaps you dishonor the Lord Jesus Christ when you sometimes jump to wrong conclusions and falsely accuse some other English Bibles of attacking Him when they did not.
GodisgraciousR325
Member
Yes they are, so many doubting footnotes on words of my Lord Jesus Christ. So many times Amen is gone, parts of his name are omitted. Unacceptable.
Several pre-1611 English Bibles and many post-1611 English Bibles clearly, precisely, and accurately identify Jesus Christ as "our God and Saviour" at 2 Peter 1:1. William Tyndale in 1534, Miles Coverdale in 1535, and John Rogers in 1537 translated the last part of this verse as "righteousness that cometh of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ." In his 1538 Latin-English New Testament, Miles Coverdale rendered it “righteousness of our God and Saviour Jesus Christ.” The 1539 Great Bible, 1557 Whittingham's New Testament, 1560 Geneva Bible, 1568 Bishops' Bible, 1576 Tomson’s New Testament, 1657 Haak’s English translation of the Dutch Bible, 1755 Wesley's New Testament, 1842 Baptist or Bernard's, 1862 Young’s Literal Translation, 1866 American Bible Union Version, 1982 NKJV, 1994 Majority Text Interlinear, and other English translations render it "righteousness of our God and Saviour [or Savior] Jesus Christ."
Surprisingly, the 1611 edition of the KJV has a comma after God at 2 Peter 1:1 [God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ], and that comma seems to have remained in most KJV editions printed up to the 1769 Oxford edition. The 1743 Cambridge and 1760 Cambridge editions had actually removed it before the 1769. Even the first KJV edition printed in America in 1782 and KJV editions printed at Oxford in 1788 and in 1795 still have a comma after God at 2 Peter 1:1. How does this comma in most KJV editions up to the 1769 Oxford affect the understanding and interpretation of this verse?
Surprisingly, the 1611 edition of the KJV has a comma after God at 2 Peter 1:1 [God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ], and that comma seems to have remained in most KJV editions printed up to the 1769 Oxford edition. The 1743 Cambridge and 1760 Cambridge editions had actually removed it before the 1769. Even the first KJV edition printed in America in 1782 and KJV editions printed at Oxford in 1788 and in 1795 still have a comma after God at 2 Peter 1:1. How does this comma in most KJV editions up to the 1769 Oxford affect the understanding and interpretation of this verse?
At 1 Thessalonians 4:2c, Tyndale's, Coverdale's, Matthew's, Taverner's, Great, and Whittingham's all have "Lord Jesus Christ" while the KJV has only "Lord Jesus." Do these early Bibles honor Christ more than the KJV here? Does the KJV deny the deity of Christ by removing "Christ" from the "Lord Jesus" here as KJV-only advocates claim if the same thing is done in modern translations? The fact that KJV-only claims cannot be applied consistently indicates that they are invalid.
Where the KJV has "Christ" at 1 Corinthians 1:6, Tyndale's, Matthew's, Great, Whittingham's, Geneva, and Bishops' have "Jesus Christ." At Romans 3:26, the Lamsa Bible has "Lord Jesus Christ," Wycliffe's Bible, Coverdale's Duoglott, and Douay-Rheims have "Jesus Christ," but the KJV has only "Jesus." Wycliffe's Bible, Coverdale's Duoglott, Douay-Rheims, Lamsa, and many modern translations read "Lord Jesus Christ" at 1 Corinthians 6:11 while the KJV reads "Lord Jesus." Rotherham's Emphasized Bible, Improved Edition by American Baptist Publication Society, and the NASB have "Jesus Christ" at Matthew 16:21 while the KJV has "Jesus." At Acts 24:24, the Reina-Valera Spanish Bible has "Jesucristo" while Coverdale's Duoglott has "Jesus Christ." At this same verse, Wycliffe's, Douay-Rheims, and many modern translations have "Christ Jesus," but the KJV has "Christ." "Lord Jesus Christ" is the reading of Coverdale's Duoglott at Acts 4:33 while "Jesus Christ our Lord" is the reading of Wycliffe's and the Douay-Rheims. At this verse, the KJV has "Lord Jesus."
Although not in the KJV, the phrase "the name of the Lord Jesus" is found in Wycliffe's, 1538 Coverdale's Duoglott, Great Bible, and Douay-Rheims at Acts 18:4. Wycliffe's, Coverdale's Duoglott, Douay-Rheims, Lamsa, and several modern translations have "Lord Jesus" at Mark 16:19, but the KJV has "Lord." At Hebrews 13:20, Wycliffe's, Coverdale's Duoglott, and Douay-Rheims have "Lord Jesus Christ" and Spanish Valera has "Senor Jesus-christo" while the KJV has "Lord Jesus." Wycliffe's, Coverdale's Duoglott, and Douay-Rheims have "Lord Jesus Christ" at Colossians 3:17 while the KJV has "Lord Jesus." After the word "grace" at Colossians 4:18, Wycliffe's, Coverdale's Duoglott, and the Great Bible have "of our Lord Jesus Christ" which is not found here in the KJV.
Where the KJV has "Christ" at 1 Corinthians 1:6, Tyndale's, Matthew's, Great, Whittingham's, Geneva, and Bishops' have "Jesus Christ." At Romans 3:26, the Lamsa Bible has "Lord Jesus Christ," Wycliffe's Bible, Coverdale's Duoglott, and Douay-Rheims have "Jesus Christ," but the KJV has only "Jesus." Wycliffe's Bible, Coverdale's Duoglott, Douay-Rheims, Lamsa, and many modern translations read "Lord Jesus Christ" at 1 Corinthians 6:11 while the KJV reads "Lord Jesus." Rotherham's Emphasized Bible, Improved Edition by American Baptist Publication Society, and the NASB have "Jesus Christ" at Matthew 16:21 while the KJV has "Jesus." At Acts 24:24, the Reina-Valera Spanish Bible has "Jesucristo" while Coverdale's Duoglott has "Jesus Christ." At this same verse, Wycliffe's, Douay-Rheims, and many modern translations have "Christ Jesus," but the KJV has "Christ." "Lord Jesus Christ" is the reading of Coverdale's Duoglott at Acts 4:33 while "Jesus Christ our Lord" is the reading of Wycliffe's and the Douay-Rheims. At this verse, the KJV has "Lord Jesus."
Although not in the KJV, the phrase "the name of the Lord Jesus" is found in Wycliffe's, 1538 Coverdale's Duoglott, Great Bible, and Douay-Rheims at Acts 18:4. Wycliffe's, Coverdale's Duoglott, Douay-Rheims, Lamsa, and several modern translations have "Lord Jesus" at Mark 16:19, but the KJV has "Lord." At Hebrews 13:20, Wycliffe's, Coverdale's Duoglott, and Douay-Rheims have "Lord Jesus Christ" and Spanish Valera has "Senor Jesus-christo" while the KJV has "Lord Jesus." Wycliffe's, Coverdale's Duoglott, and Douay-Rheims have "Lord Jesus Christ" at Colossians 3:17 while the KJV has "Lord Jesus." After the word "grace" at Colossians 4:18, Wycliffe's, Coverdale's Duoglott, and the Great Bible have "of our Lord Jesus Christ" which is not found here in the KJV.