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NA26 gives the 4 manuscripts that omit "and fasting." א B 0274 k.
k is a Latin manuscript.
Matthew 17:21 and Mark 9:29 are parallel texts. And unique to Matthew and Mark. Also it is understanding Matthew was written before Mark, Mark following Matthew. Then Luke. And John.As you know various bibles KJV. NRSV, NSAB, NET etc. will often have different wording for the same verse. I often compare bibles when I come across a questioned passage. But one thing that I hold to no matter what version is context. The text has to fit the context and it should also be logical. I know you like the longer ending to Mar 9:29 but IMO it does not fit with the context nor is it logical. Read my post # 36.
The one three star review, said it was regarding the Hebrew. And applicable to language scholars.https://www.amazon.com/Scribal-Skips-1300-Words-Bible/dp/1483461874/ref=mp_s_a_1_1?crid=67UGIQDIN1LI&keywords=scribal+skips&qid=1683386300&s=books&sprefix=scribal+skip,aps,202&sr=1-1
Here is an excellent, inexpensive book to judge the character of manuscripts, whether they accidently delete text a lot or very little. An eye opening book. Any one with intrest in the Text of the Bible should have. Especially the New Testament.
I have mostly just read the New Testament part, and it was excellent! Eye skip affected alot of early scribes. I doubt any manuscripts are free from it.The one three star review, said it was regarding the Hebrew. And applicable to language scholars.
https://www.amazon.com/product-revi...r&reviewerType=all_reviews#reviews-filter-bar
Thank you.I have mostly just read the New Testament part, and it was excellent! Eye skip affected alot of early scribes. I doubt any manuscripts are free from it.
So "by every word of God" really does not matter. Re: Luke 4:4.Whether "and fasting" is or is not in the text really does not matter.
That is true. Almost all substantial textual Variants came to be in the 2nd century AD. The older manuscripts are our record of this wild time. However, like you said the older ones were not copied much. Nowhere near like the excellent copies of what we call the Byzantine Text.Thank you.
The main reason we have really old manuscripts being that they were not wore-out from use or out right destroyed.
FYI.That is true. Almost all substantial textual Variants came to be in the 2nd century AD. The older manuscripts are our record of this wild time. However, like you said the older ones were not copied much. Nowhere near like the excellent copies of what we call the Byzantine Text.
While the agreements of Vaticanus and Sinaiticus go way back to the wild 2nd century, they go back to the time when almost all substantial variants came to be. But the Original Text goes back further to the first century AD.
This little book shows that the missing words in Vaticanus/Sinaiticus (and others) are due to accidental scribal skips by a common ancestor that goes way back to the 2nd century.
Certainly Westcott&Hort, Metzger, the Alands are wrong about the Original Text. They thought the missing text to be original. Turns out the missing words were accidental scribal skips.
FYI.
Year 1 -100 are 1st century.
Year 101 - 200 are 2nd century.
There are some New Testament Papyrus manuscripts from this century.Year 201 - 300 are 3rd century.
Codex's Vaticanus and Sinaiticus are dated this century.Year 301 - 400 are 4th century.
Year 401:- 500 are 5th century.
Which means we should not be making the mistakes from the 18-1900's anymore.Year 2001 - 2100 are the 21st century.
So "by every word of God" really does not matter. Re: Luke 4:4.
Don't you understand, if the word of God is to also explain fasting is also needed with the prayer, it is then in those demons interest not to have the believer to fast? So they won't be forced to leave? If so be the case, not to fast in prayer is then a doctrine of demons?That is not what I said so please do not put words in my mouth. As I said the context does not requite "and fasting". If you want to put it in that is your choice. It is not required in the text and for all you know those words could have been added to Mat 17:21.
Don't you understand, if the word of God is to also explain fasting is also needed with the prayer, it is then in those demons interest not to have the believer to fast? So they won't be forced to leave? If so be the case, not to fast in prayer is then a doctrine of demons?
A few facts. Two of which, first Matthew 17:21 text does not exist without both "prayer and fasting" and only 3 Greek manuscripts for the gospel by Mark 9:29 omit "and fasting."Don't you understand that it is not the fasting but the prayer to our living God that is important. You are letting your own bias come into the verse. Are you saying that if a person does not fast then their prayers are of no use?
Jas_5:16 Therefore, confess your sins to one another, and pray for one another so that you may be healed. The effective prayer of a righteous man can accomplish much.
A few facts. Two of which, first Matthew 17:21 text does not exist without both "prayer and fasting" and only 3 Greek manuscripts for the gospel by Mark 9:29 omit "and fasting."
I know.The oldest manuscripts do not include Matthew 17:21 (and omit “fasting” in the parallel verse at Mark 9:29).
Either the whole of Matthew 17:21 is missing or it has " prayer and fasting." What manuscript of Matthew 17:21 only omits "and fasting"? As I understand, there is no such manuscript for Matthew 17:21.A few facts. Two of which, first Matthew 17:21 text does not exist without both "prayer and fasting" and only 3 Greek manuscripts for the gospel by Mark 9:29 omit "and fasting."
Not merely of the Majority Text. But Family 35. Not limited to one text type.You are hanging your hat on the majority text as being the best because there are more of those manuscripts around, I would have to guess.
Other translations, such as the KJV and NKJV, have a different philosophy regarding manuscripts. They do not assume that the oldest manuscript is necessarily more reliable and follow the "majority text" (MT) manuscript family—which includes Matthew 17:21 and mentions prayer and fasting in Mark 9:29. This philosophy of translation, in simplified form, sees the majority of manuscripts as a better witness to the original autographs than the oldest." Q333 : Why is Matthew 17:21 Omitted from Some Bibles?
I know.
That is what my argument is based on.
Either the whole of Matthew 17:21 is missing or it has " prayer and fasting." What manuscript of Matthew 17:21 only omits "and fasting"? As I understand, there is no such manuscript for Matthew 17:21.
Not merely of the Majority Text. But Family 35. Not limited to one text type.
99.4% of mss of Matthew verses 00.6% mss. We are not shown text type distributions.