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The ONE QUESTION KJVOs can't correctly answer...
- Thread starter robycop3
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Hmmmm..............still no Scripture for your "God created other people" myth. Pot meet kettle. Do you not realize that you've lost all credibility and are just embarrassing yourself? Even logos, who I know you respect, has posted that you're wrong. Did you miss his post:
I realize that robocop brought up the theory of God creating individuals other than Adam and Eve -
but this thread is talking about the KJO theory.
Thus I have started a new thread about Adam and Eve - and???
but this thread is talking about the KJO theory.
Thus I have started a new thread about Adam and Eve - and???
Try this. KJB Onlyism Scriptural?
I'm not recommending it-- I am absolutely not KJVO-- but you keep asking for a response so I thought I'd give you one.
Hmmmmmm. Still no response from robycop3 to the FACT there's NO AUTHORITY behind the "Cain married an alien" myth. LOL! ROFLOL!
Hmmmmmm. Still no response from robycop3 to the FACT there's NO AUTHORITY behind the "Cain married an alien" myth. LOL! ROFLOL!
No authority saying he married his sister, either!
Try this. KJB Onlyism Scriptural?
I'm not recommending it-- I am absolutely not KJVO-- but you keep asking for a response so I thought I'd give you one.
Well, martin, for one thing, anything from Mr. Kinney must be taken with a grain of salt. And I read that article very carefully years ago. There's not one Scripture in it supporting the KJVO myth & whenever Mr. Kinney is pressed on any website or social media forum about it, he goes silent.
He has no more backing for his KJVO myth than any other KJVO has.
Eve = "Mother of ALL living."
I had asked TC starting last Saturday (post #67) which manuscripts predate Aleph and B and agrees with Erasmus. TC said that the Greek text of Erasmus agrees with the vast majority of Greek texts of the N.T. Of course. But I maintain his Greek text did not agree with manuscripts which precede 330 A.D.
I have asked him repeatedly and yet he can't supply a name of any papyri that agrees with the N.T.Greek text of Erasmus.
No citations, no proof, no evidence. Without support T.C.'s claim is false.
I have asked him repeatedly and yet he can't supply a name of any papyri that agrees with the N.T.Greek text of Erasmus.
No citations, no proof, no evidence. Without support T.C.'s claim is false.
One cannot be KJVO and have any scripture or logic to support their position!
And they always refuse to apply towards the Kjv/TR the same tests they hammer modern versions and other Greek texts with!
I believe the point has been made.
The KJVO myth has no Scriptural support, by the least quark of the slightest implication.
For a doctrine of faith/worship to be true, it MUST have Scriptural support. KJVO has NONE. It was invented outta thin air by MEN.
There's simply no truth to KJVO, any more than there is for any other man-made doctrines of faith/worship such as regenerational baptism, word/faith, name it-claim it, oneness, or a whole host of other man-made "isms" used to pollute Christianity. All were invented outta thin air by men, same as KJVO, and all are just-as-false.
True Baptist Christians don't believe any of those other false doctrines I mentioned above, so why should any of them believe the KJVO myth, which is in that same boat?
"THE KJVO MYTH - PHONY AS A FORD CORVETTE!"
The KJVO myth has no Scriptural support, by the least quark of the slightest implication.
For a doctrine of faith/worship to be true, it MUST have Scriptural support. KJVO has NONE. It was invented outta thin air by MEN.
There's simply no truth to KJVO, any more than there is for any other man-made doctrines of faith/worship such as regenerational baptism, word/faith, name it-claim it, oneness, or a whole host of other man-made "isms" used to pollute Christianity. All were invented outta thin air by men, same as KJVO, and all are just-as-false.
True Baptist Christians don't believe any of those other false doctrines I mentioned above, so why should any of them believe the KJVO myth, which is in that same boat?
"THE KJVO MYTH - PHONY AS A FORD CORVETTE!"
1689Dave
Well-Known Member
It still remains that God wanted the KJV readily available or it would not have been so popular. We must deal with that. But it is just another good translation that needs some upgrading provided by some of the more modern translations. If people feel closer to God using only the KJV, that is great, not to be criticised. Just as others should not criticise you for your choice in bibles.
Great question - started a new thread based on the question above
Actually I disagree with that. (as you stated) People feel closer to God using only the KJV. Sure that might "feel" that way, but they could be totally wrong.
How about this example - I have had the same TV for the past 30 years - and I feel it is the best TV - no need for a new one. Then a friend of mine says -" but a Smart TV with Hi-Def is much better" How could it be any better - my old TV model has sold more units than any of these modern new models.
I finally give in to shut up my friend and watch a program with Hi - Def - WOW - WHAT A DIFFERENCE.!
Mind you - I am not criticising using the KJV (and I do use the KJV) - but these "new models" may just give you a better perspective.
1689Dave
Well-Known Member
Think of those who defile their conscience doing what they think is sin. Even if it is not sin, it becomes sin because they cannot do it it faith. Some think they are sinning when reading other translations. So by all means, go with the KJV if you feel it is right.
Another great Question/discussion
Don't know if this is a good analogy - but let me try.
About a mile down my road is a school zone - School speed limit is 30 mph. Now if someone were to go 35 milies an hour - they might THINK they are speeding- but it could be they are not! You see the school speed limit is only in effect from 7 am - 6 pm on school days - unless otherwise posted. So you might think you might be speeding - but in all reality you are not! (in fact, one night at 10 pm, coming home from work - a cop stopped me for speeding - in that school zone - except he did not know the law properly and had to let me go.
One more analogy - when I was in school - we were taught to NEVER write in our textbooks. I have taken that to the extremes - I never write in any of my personal books - including my Bibles (regardless of translation!)
Now how many blessings have I missed by still obeying my school teachers. I just (seriously) feel bad when writing in my Bibles!
So telling me that you "feel something" is NOT a sufficient reason to not use another translation. Again, how many blessings are they missing.
PS - I got with the Town - and they finally put up a sign stating 7am--6pm. But you know what - people are still only going 30 mph - outside the stated hours - even though the regular speed limit is 45 mph
By this logic, one could say that God wanted all manner of evil "readily available or it would not have been so popular.
As a rule of thumb, that which is "popular" is more often that which should be avoided by the believer, for it is usually that which is embraced by the world(ly).
Although this is well stated, I am not certain that in the broadest spectrum it is fully applicable. There are some bibles (Good News for Modern Man) that the believer might occasionally use, but I would never recommend it.
Also, it is never wrong to be criticized for the choice of Bibles. It gives time to pause and reflect upon the value and worthiness of the rendering.
But, critical assessment and comparison that leads to condemnation is a difference of distinction. You are most correct in your thinking that such condemnation is in error. There is so much better that can be discussed and preached than to go to seed on what translation is "THE" only one God uses when the very skies and stars declare Him.
1689Dave
Well-Known Member
so is your "more popular" bible evil according to this?
1689Dave
Well-Known Member
I think the following principles cover a lot. From drinking beer or not drinking beer. From using KJV only to using all better translations, and so on...
Paul says;
“Him that is weak in the faith receive ye, but not to doubtful disputations. For one believeth that he may eat all things: another, who is weak, eateth herbs. Let not him that eateth despise him that eateth not; and let not him which eateth not judge him that eateth: for God hath received him.” (Romans 14:1–3) (KJV 1900)
“It is good neither to eat flesh, nor to drink wine, nor any thing whereby thy brother stumbleth, or is offended, or is made weak.” (Romans 14:21) (KJV 1900)
“And he that doubteth is damned if he eat, because he eateth not of faith: for whatsoever is not of faith is sin.” (Romans 14:23) (KJV 1900)
"Better" is an entirely subjective assessment. What makes a translation "better?" Is there a rational basis for the subjective assessment of "better?" If so, what would that be?
Not to derail the thread, but only to point out that the Scriptures do make remarks concerning intoxicants.
We as believers are priests and rulers. We are to one day to sit as judges over even the angelic hosts.
The Scriptures state: "It is not for kings, Lemuel-- it is not for kings to drink wine, not for rulers to crave beer,..."
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