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The Order of Divine Decrees (Decree)

Robert McLaughlin in his “The Doctrine of the Divine Decree” provides profound insight on the subject and deals effectively with the errors of Calvinism and others on the matter.

McLaughlin begins with this:

”The decree of God refers to His eternal (always existed), Holy (perfect integrity), wise (the application of Omniscience to creation), and sovereign purpose. This means that God simultaneously comprehended all things that ever were or ever would be. He comprehended every event, their causes and their interaction with other events, including every decision we would ever make. The Omniscience of God expresses the source of these decrees. It also expresses the attributes of God in terms of Divine will in human history. God knew simultaneously in eternity past everything that would ever happen in human history (the thoughts, actions, and decisions of every person). Because our understanding is limited, we perceive these things only in partial aspects and in logical relations that comes from Scripture. Therefore, we classify the decrees as being plural, but in reality there is only one decree.”
I am quite interested not only in the theological issue but the practical application and the implications (which for the believer is admittedly still quite theological if they claim to be a student of the Word). The work is encompassing of many of the facets and claims of Calvinism such as how they define predestination, election and the atonement (reducing it to a limited atonement).

In dealing with the order of the divine decrees McLaughlin addresses Lapsarianism as a whole and covers Supra-lapsarianism, Sub-lapsarianism, Infra-lapsarianism and Arminian Lapsarianism and their order of divine decrees:
The differences in the four schools of thought regarding Lapsarianism can be seen in the table below:

Supra-lapsarianism:
Elect some
Provide Salvation
Create
Permit Fall
Save the Elect

Sub-lapsarianism
Create
Permit Fall
Elect
Provide Salvation
Save the Elect

*Infra-lapsarianism
Create
Permit Fall
Provide Salvation
Elect
Save the Elect

Arminian Lapsarianism
Create
Permit Fall
Provide Salvation
Salvation by Works
Election in time
* Walvoord and Chafer hold to the order of Infra-lapsarianism above but others view Infra-lapsariainsim as follows:
Infra-lapsarianism
Create
Permit Fall
Elect
Provide Salvation
Save the Elect

McLaughlin himself then provides his insight regarding the order of decrees:

The correct order of the five elective decrees as follows;

1. God decreed the creation of all mankind with free will in the status of perfection for two reasons: To resolve the prehistoric angelic conflict, and to bring many sons into glory. "Being brought into glory" in Heb 2:10, means there is a Christian way of life, a way to glorify God after salvation.

2. God decreed to permit the fall of mankind through the function of his own determination, his own volition as the extension of the angelic conflict into human history. Angels had a fall; therefore man must have a fall to resolve the conflict. This duplicates Satan's fall and the subsequent existence of fallen angels.

3. God decreed to provide eternal salvation for all mankind under the doctrine of unlimited atonement. God is fair and provides for all. God doesn't arbitrarily assign creatures to Hell. Unlimited atonement means that all sins in human history were imputed to Jesus Christ on the cross and judged, so that Christ is the issue and not sins (2Co 5:14-15, 19; 1Ti 2:6, 4:10; Tit 2:11; Heb 2:9; 2Pe 2:1; 1Jo 2:2).

4. God decreed to leave the reprobate (those who reject Christ as Savior) to their just condemnation.

5. God decreed simultaneously in eternity past both election and predestination for believers only.
McLaughlin identifies Supra-lapsarianism. as “Hyper-Calvinism or Beza's theory. This theory states that first there was the decree to elect some to be saved (a false position) and to reprobate all others” He refers to Sub-lapsarianism as “a form of moderate Calvinism” (no double predestination as in Hyper-Calvinism) and Infra-lapsarianism also as “a form of moderate Calvinism” but adds that though it is not correct it is “close to the correct Biblical view” with its understanding and accepting of unlimited atonement but confusion on election. And then Arminiain-Lapsarianism, which is self-identifying, McLaughlin rightly segregates and identifies as a works oriented salvation not rightly representative of election as well.

The work goes on to deal with human volition, the directive and permissive will of God and much more. In fact one last quote is worth noting without spoiling the reading adventure for anyone interested. McLaughlin deals effectively with the realities of Divine Sovereignty and Human Volition in this statement:
The divine decree exerts no force or influences upon our will, and while it insures the future of events, it leaves them to be accomplished in the exercise of our liberty. While it determines that some things should be brought to pass necessarily, it determines that other things should be brought to pass freely. God has decreed, not only that men should act, but also that they should act freely, and agreeably to their rational nature. He determined the act, but men being free agents, had the opportunity to act differently. It is God's will alone which is to be considered and not the means by which it has been determined. If God foreordained certain actions, and placed men in such circumstances that the actions would certainly take place, men are still responsible because they acted voluntarily and are responsible for the actions, which are their own. Liberty does not consist in the power of acting or not acting, but in acting from choice. The choice is determined by something in the mind itself, or by something external influencing the mind; but whatever is the cause, the choice makes the action free, and the agent is accountable. Therefore, it is possible to reconcile the freedom of the will with absolute decrees.
 
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russell55

New Member
He's got some things mixed up. Infralapsarianism has the decree of election directly after the decree to permit the fall. Then comes the decree to atone for the sins of those he elected.

What he's labled infralapsarianism is really amyraldianism—the decree to redeem comes before the decree to election. Some people call this sublapsarianism, too, but sublapsarianism is used for different things by different theologians, so it's a term that's best not used as it ends up being confusing.

Here's a chart. (I wrote a series of pieces on this subject once, and I can attest to the accuracy of this one.)

It is also unfair and innaccurate to claim that arminian salvation is "by works". That is not arminianism, but pelagianism.

Honestly, I didn't read much else in the OP, because if someone makes these rather elementary mistakes, I find it hard to take what he has to say on the subject seriously.
 

Rippon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Mr. A.Q. : Don't be so dismisive of what R55 has said . You do want to be made aware of factual errors , do you not ? Your author (R.b. ) got a number of things mixed up ( intentionally perhaps ) .

He said that "Limited atonement is blasphemous." Now that is not a very astute observation . He doesn't address the fact that most Calvinists call it particular redemption . Calvinists do not limit God .

On another anti-Calvinist website : "Sold Out At Romans 7" by Dr. Vic Reasoner he matter-of-factly stated that Theodore Beza was John Calvin's son-in-law ! When those kind of error-filled remarks are laced throughout a diatribe it's time to give it a good riddance .
 

russell55

New Member
Okay, I had time after supper to come back and read the rest. It too, contains several factual errors and also a bit of fuzzy thinking.
McLaughlin identifies Supra-lapsarianism. as “Hyper-Calvinism
He is mistaken on this, too. Simply being a supralapsarian is not enough to qualify as a hypercalvinist. Hypercalvinism has a specific definition. It is a school of supralapsianism that
so stresses the sovereignty of God by over-emphasizing the secret over the revealed will of God and eternity over time, that it minimizes the responsibility of sinners, notably with respect to the denial of the use of the word "offer" in relation to the preaching of the gospel; thus it undermines the universal duty of sinners to believe savingly in the Lord Jesus with the assurance that Christ actually died for them; and it encourages introspection in the search to know whether or not one is elect. [Peter Toon, "Hyper-Calvinism," New Dictionary of Theology (Leicester: IVP, 1988), 324.]
[Source]

Only those supralapsarians who deny the offer of the gospel and the duty of all people to believe it are hypercalvinists. All hypercalvinists are supralapsarians, but only a small minority of supralapsarians are hypercalvinists.

And then Arminiain-Lapsarianism, which is self-identifying, McLaughlin rightly segregates and identifies as a works oriented salvation....
While it may be true that some individual Arminians trust in their works for salvation, it is not, as systemitized by theologians in ordered decrees, a works oriented salvation. In an Arminian decree order, God elects those "who would believe of their own free will."

It is also incorrect to say that in an Arminian order of decrees, the decree of election occurs in time. In an Arminian order of decrees, election is of "those whom [God] foresaw would believe of their own free will." [Source]

In fact, it is nonsense to say that any decree occurs in time. If the decision occurs in time, it does not belong in an order of decrees. By definition, all the decrees in an order of decrees occur before time, because is the order of God's plan for salvation, drawn up by him before the foundation of the world. That's why they are called God's eternal decrees.
1. God decreed the creation of all mankind with free will in the status of perfection for two reasons: To resolve the prehistoric angelic conflict, and to bring many sons into glory. "Being brought into glory" in Heb 2:10, means there is a Christian way of life, a way to glorify God after salvation.
This is the decree to create. All the other stuff would customarily not be included in an order of decrees. For one, part of it is obvious just from the order itself. Mankind has to be created in the status of perfection because this comes logically before the decree of the fall. Other bits of this statement may indeed be part of the theological system, but they they aren't part of the logical order of the plan of salvation, because they aren't the specific logical foundation for the next item in the order.
2.God decreed to permit the fall of mankind through the function of his own determination, his own volition as the extension of the angelic conflict into human history. Angels had a fall; therefore man must have a fall to resolve the conflict. This duplicates Satan's fall and the subsequent existence of fallen angels.
This is the decree to permit the fall. Once again, the other stuff shouldn't be included for the second reason listed above.

3. God decreed to provide eternal salvation for all mankind under the doctrine of unlimited atonement. God is fair and provides for all. God doesn't arbitrarily assign creatures to Hell. Unlimited atonement means that all sins in human history were imputed to Jesus Christ on the cross and judged, so that Christ is the issue and not sins (2Co 5:14-15, 19; 1Ti 2:6, 4:10; Tit 2:11; Heb 2:9; 2Pe 2:1; 1Jo 2:2).
This is the decree to provide salvation. All the other statements are unnecesary, since the placement of this decree in the order makes it obvious that this is not particular redemption, since it comes before the decree of election.

4.God decreed to leave the reprobate (those who reject Christ as Savior) to their just condemnation.

5. God decreed simultaneously in eternity past both election and predestination for believers only.
Customarily the decree to pass over and the decree to elect are one single decree. This would be the decree to elect those who will believe.

So the order is:
  • Create
  • Permit fall
  • Provide salvation for all.
  • Elect those who will believe.
It is, essentially, the same as the Arminian order of decrees.
 
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Rippon said:
Mr. A.Q. : Don't be so dismissive of what R55 has said
He dismissed most of the OP so he has the problem with dismissiveness so I suggest you preach that sermon to him. Secondly, the author I was quoting was also representative of Walvoord's and Chafer's chronology in Infra-lapsarianism. While no one is infallible I believe both men are respectable company.
 
russell55 said:
Okay, I had time after supper to come back and read the rest. It too, contains several factual errors and also a bit of fuzzy thinking.
Nothing like beginning with an insult to set yourself up as the one to provide illumination. Bad precedent for establishing the integrity of debate but inconsequential I suspect to the keen inquirer.
russell55 said:
He is mistaken on this, too. Simply being a supralapsarian is not enough to qualify as a hypercalvinist. Hypercalvinism has a specific definition.
I find the definition of a Hypercalvinist quite fluid, changing readily with each Calvinist I meet who has some theologian they are ready to quote to qualify their "special" definition.
russell55 said:
Only those supralapsarians who deny the offer of the gospel and the duty of all people to believe it are hypercalvinists. All hypercalvinists are supralapsarians, but only a small minority of supralapsarians are hypercalvinists.
And why pray tell is your "SOURCE" to validate your claim that only a "small minority" of Hypercalvinists are supralapsarians? On what exhaustive statistical work are you basing this claim? Or is this a supposition you want treated as fact, something you eschew in others but possible embrace for your own arguments? But forgiving your glaring double standards, let's say you are correct, this does not make the author wrong, simply inclusive and not exclusive in his categorization. I am sure you can survive that.
russell55 said:
While it may be true that some individual Arminians trust in their works for salvation, it is not, as systemitized by theologians in ordered decrees, a works oriented salvation. In an Arminian decree order, God elects those "who would believe of their own free will."

It is also incorrect to say that in an Arminian order of decrees, the decree of election occurs in time. In an Arminian order of decrees, election is of "those whom [God] foresaw would believe of their own free will." [Source]
You seem to believe "Theopedia" is your answer to all things theological. I suggest you invest in sources outside of the singular claims of "Theopedia". You simply disagree with the author and believe your conclusions about a theological system you don't even hold to are superior to his. A common occurrence among Theologians and you are no exception.

russell55 said:
In fact, it is nonsense to say that any decree occurs in time. If the decision occurs in time, it does not belong in an order of decrees. By definition, all the decrees in an order of decrees occur before time, because is the order of God's plan for salvation, drawn up by him before the foundation of the world. That's why they are called God's eternal decrees.
So says you of course but the end of Arminianism requires the decree of salvation to be within time since it is within time that one, "according to Arminianism" determines through their works whether they are saved or not. You missed the obvious here.

russell55 said:
This is the decree to create. All the other stuff would customarily not be included in an order of decrees. For one, part of it is obvious just from the order itself. Mankind has to be created in the status of perfection because this comes logically before the decree of the fall. Other bits of this statement may indeed be part of the theological system, but they they aren't part of the logical order of the plan of salvation, because they aren't the specific logical foundation for the next item in the order.
Possibly this paragraph was typed in haste, I have been guilty of that myself. However, as it stands its construct makes an effective response very limited. I find it puzzling that you believe mankind was created in the "status of perfection". As far as your objection to the logical order of things, you can indeed object but objecting and simply saying "it isn't logical" doesn't provide any argument demonstrating its lack of reasonable logic.


russell55 said:
This is the decree to provide salvation. All the other statements are unnecesary, since the placement of this decree in the order makes it obvious that this is not particular redemption, since it comes before the decree of election.


Customarily the decree to pass over and the decree to elect are one single decree. This would be the decree to elect those who will believe.

So the order is:
  • Create
  • Permit fall
  • Provide salvation for all.
  • Elect those who will believe.
It is, essentially, the same as the Arminian order of decrees.
And again, this is what you believe, fine. Obviously not everyone believers what you do nor categorizes as you do. I believe you of course are wrong and misunderstand the "end" of Arminiainism, making it distinctive from other orders of lapsarianism, but hey, that's okay, that is what the board is for, debate.
 

russell55

New Member
Alex Quackenbush said:
I find the definition of a Hypercalvinist quite fluid, changing readily with each Calvinist I meet who has some theologian they are ready to quote to qualify their "special" definition.
In common usage, yes, the word is used many different ways. But what I gave you was a definition from a theological dictionary, and I think if you consult other theological dictionaries, or even other systematic theologies, you'll find the word used in a more technical way than it is in everyday language, and the definition will be consistent with the one I gave you. And since an order of decrees is a technical theological thing, it'd be a good idea to define the words you used consistent with the technical theological usages.

And why pray tell is your "SOURCE" to validate your claim that only a "small minority" of Hypercalvinists are supralapsarians? On what exhaustive statistical work are you basing this claim?
You got it backwards. It's only a small minority of supralapsarians who are hypercalvinist. All hypercalvinists are supralapsarians, but not that many supralapsarians are hypercalvinists. I've read that several places, and it's a common sense conclusion. True hypercalvinists are a pretty rare breed. Supralapsarians, not so much so. I can give you a fairly long list of well-known supralapsarians, and none of them would deny the indiscriminate offer of the gospel.

this does not make the author wrong, simply inclusive and not exclusive in his categorization.
It means he's using not using the technical definition of the word, and for someone who is proposing a theologically technical list, it's a pretty major shortcoming.

You seem to believe "Theopedia" is your answer to all things theological. I suggest you invest in sources outside of the singular claims of "Theopedia".
Not really. I've actually done a lot of research on this subject and read pretty widely on it. I linked to the chart at theopedia because, in this case, is pretty consistent with what I found out and it's simple. The definitive work in the issue is B. B. Warfield's, The Plan of Salvation, but it's pretty long and the language is difficult, so I chose to link to the chart instead.

You simply disagree with the author and believe your conclusions about a theological system you don't even hold to are superior to his. A common occurrence among Theologians and you are no exception.
I'm not a theologian; I've simply read up on this issue. I found it interesting because it's a logical exercise.

So says you of course but the end of Arminianism requires the decree of salvation to be within time since it is within time that one, "according to Arminianism" determines through their works whether they are saved or not. You missed the obvious here.
By definition, eternal decrees cannot be made in time. If God only actually decides something in time, then it isn't an eternal decree, and therefore can't be included on a list of eternal decrees. But Arminians would say that God decides based on his foreknowledge of events in time, but he makes the decisions before the foundation of the world. In that way, they are still eternal decrees and not decrees made in time.

I find it puzzling that you believe mankind was created in the "status of perfection".
Why? Which theological system doesn't have man created in the status of perfection?
As far as your objection to the logical order of things, you can indeed object but objecting and simply saying "it isn't logical" doesn't provide any argument demonstrating its lack of reasonable logic.
I don't know how I can explain it better than I did. Ordering the decrees is a logical exercise. Each decree builds logically on the previous one, kind of like doing a proof in geometry. If a statement isn't necessary in order to build a logical foundation for the next item on the list, then conventionally, it isn't included in the order of decrees.

God decreeing to permit the fall assumes the presence of creation. It doesn't necessarily assume the reasons given in that decree. That doesn't mean they aren't true, or aren't part of the theological system. They just wouldn't be included in the ordered list of decrees because they aren't the specific building blocks supporting the following decree. I don't know how to explain it better than that.

Furthermore, if the decrees are in logical order, how can you have mention of salvation before the decree to permit the fall? God's decision to save people has to be logically grounded in his decision to allow humankind to fall, so any mention of salvation in the ordered list of decrees has to come after the decree to permit the fall.
 
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russell55

New Member
Alex Quackenbush said:
the author I was quoting was also representative of Walvoord's and Chafer's chronology in Infra-lapsarianism. While no one is infallible I believe both men are respectable company.

The words supralapsarianism and infralapsarianism themselves were chosen because they communicate precisely the order of the decrees within the system. The prefix of each word has to do with where the decree of election is in relation to the decree of the fall (laps). Supra means "above", and in a supralapsarian scheme, the decree of election is directly above the decree to permit the fall. Infra means "below", so in infralapsarianism, the decree of election is directly below the decree to permit the fall. The rest of the orders aren't really lapsarian at all, since the decree of election is not directly related to the decree of the fall. Hence their more traditional names are amyraldianism and arminianism.

I'm not sure why Walvoord and Chafer don't get it right, since those particular names for those particular systems were worked out in the 17th century. And yes, they are respectable, but even respectable people have areas in which they aren't expert.
 
russell55 said:
In common usage, yes the word is used many different ways.
Good, glad you understand that.

russell55 said:
But what I gave you was a definition from a theological dictionary...And since an order of decrees is a technical theological thing, it'd be a good idea to define the words you used consistent with the technical theological usages.
When "Theopedia" is considered and employed by in large within the community of Protestant Evangelicals as an academically and theologically body of credible work and research then we can talk about its definitions and terms. Until then it doesn't cut it.

russell55 said:
True hypercalvinists are a pretty rare breed. Superlapsarians, not so much so.
I find Hypercalvinists to be quite common. Now I do realize that some Calvinists are Hypers but avoid the use of that name in identifying themselves because of the ridiculousness of the teaching of double predestination bothers their conscience and that might be why you believe they are rare but my experience tells me otherwise.


russell55 said:
It means he's using not using the technical definition of the word, and for someone who is proposing a theologically technical list, it's a pretty major shortcoming.
He is using what you have already admitted is a definition that is fluid in its common use. But suppose there is a "technical" definition. The technical definition to which you refer is that made by Calvinists for Calvinists as if all other theologians are ineligible from challenging your self-defining terms (a rather convenient and self-serving position) with their own theological conclusions. I find McLaughlin's acceptable and quite applicable.


russell55 said:
No. I've actually done a lot of research on this subject, and read pretty widely on it. I linked to the chart at theopedia, in this case, is pretty consistent with what I found out, and it's simple. The definitive work in the issue is B. B. Warfield's, The Plan of Salvation, but it's pretty long and the language is difficult, so I chose to link to the chart instead.
Warfield is of course a...Calvinist. Right and Theopedia is...well you've read my comments on both self-serving references and definitions and "Theopedia" as a theological source of weight.


russell55 said:
I'm not a theologian; I've simply read up on this issue. I found it interesting because it's a logical exercise.
Well I am sure you are aware that you aren't the only person who has of course.


russell55 said:
By definition, eternal decrees cannot be made in time. If God only actually decides something in time, then it isn't an eternal decree, and therefore can't be included on a list of eternal decrees. But Arminians would say that God decides based on his foreknowledge of events in time, but he makes the decisions before the foundation of the world. In that way, they are still eternal decrees and not decrees made in time.
Again, because salvation in the Arminian view is not certain it is by default placed as an eternal decree made in time. Obviously McLaughlin disagrees with the Arminian view, he simply is pointing out the end, i.e. the prescription of their theology and its relationship to Divine Decrees.


russell55 said:
Why? Which theological system doesn't have man created in the status of perfection?
I know of none that teach that. I do know of many that teach man was created "morally perfect in knowledge, righteousness, and holiness" or any other relevant qualifiers but I don't know of one that simply leaves open the declaration that man was created "in the status of perfection" without qualifiers. Even McLaughlin qualifies the status of perfection of that being accompanied with free-will.

russell55 said:
I don't know how I can explain it better than I did. Ordering the decrees is a logical exercise. Each decree builds logically on the previous one, kind of like doing a proof in geometry. If a statement isn't necessary in order to build a logical foundation for the next item on the list, then conventionally, it isn't included in the order of decrees.
You don't have to explain it. I understand it I simply don't agree with YOUR view on the order. You believe YOURS is the preeminent view and the ONLY LOGICAL choice. While logic is a legitimate source for evaluation and consideration, ultimately if the Scriptures present something contrary to your stated logic, then the obligation is to give way to the authority of Scriptures. In this case I believe the Scriptures teach the order reflected by McLaughlin.

russell55 said:
Furthermore, if the decrees are in logical order, how can you have mention of salvation before the decree to permit the fall? God's decision to save people has to be logically grounded in his decision to allow humankind to fall, so any mention of salvation in the ordered list of decrees has to come after the decree to permit the fall.
Go ask the Supra-lapsarians that, this is what they believe.
 
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russell55 said:
The words supralapsarianism and infralapsarianism themselves were chosen because they communicate precisely the order of the decrees within the system. The prefix of each word has to do with where the decree of election is in relation to the decree of the fall (laps). Supra means "above", and in a supralapsarian scheme, the decree of election is directly above the decree to permit the fall. Infra means "below", so in infralapsarianism, the decree of election is directly below the decree to permit the fall. The rest of the orders aren't really lapsarian at all, since the decree of election is not directly related to the decree of the fall. Hence their more traditional names are amyraldianism and arminianism.

I'm not sure why Walvoord and Chafer don't get it right, since those particular names for those particular systems were worked out in the 17th century. And yes, they are respectable, but even respectable people have areas in which they aren't expert.
I guess they, Seminary Presidents and notable theologians. were waiting for you, an admitted non-theologian, to come and declare their ignorance. Look, you have the same Spirit of God they had and are quite capable of being illuminated as they were but your attitude is as condescending as it gets regarding these men of serious academic, theological and spiritual maturity. Maybe it is YOU that has it wrong...alas but it couldn't be right? Because you found some others that agree with you that must make YOU right and them wrong...right? Yeah...sure.

In the meantime I have yet to discover any succinct or reasonable debate regarding McLaughlin's presentation of the order of Divine decrees but hey, I'm listening:

The correct order of the five elective decrees as follows;

1. God decreed the creation of all mankind with free will in the status of perfection for two reasons: To resolve the prehistoric angelic conflict, and to bring many sons into glory. "Being brought into glory" in Heb 2:10, means there is a Christian way of life, a way to glorify God after salvation.

2. God decreed to permit the fall of mankind through the function of his own determination, his own volition as the extension of the angelic conflict into human history. Angels had a fall; therefore man must have a fall to resolve the conflict. This duplicates Satan's fall and the subsequent existence of fallen angels.

3. God decreed to provide eternal salvation for all mankind under the doctrine of unlimited atonement. God is fair and provides for all. God doesn't arbitrarily assign creatures to Hell. Unlimited atonement means that all sins in human history were imputed to Jesus Christ on the cross and judged, so that Christ is the issue and not sins (2Co 5:14-15, 19; 1Ti 2:6, 4:10; Tit 2:11; Heb 2:9; 2Pe 2:1; 1Jo 2:2).

4. God decreed to leave the reprobate (those who reject Christ as Savior) to their just condemnation.

5. God decreed simultaneously in eternity past both election and predestination for believers only.
 
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russell55

New Member
Alex Quackenbush said:
.When "Theopedia" is considered and employed by in large within the community of Protestant Evangelicals as an academically and theologically body of credible work and research then we can talk about its definitions and terms. Until then it doesn't cut it.
I didn't get the definition from theopedia. I sourced it to the New Dictionary of Theology (Leicester: IVP, 1988). But go ahead and check the definition of hypercalvinism in any other theological dictionary, if you like.

I find Hypercalvinists to be quite common. Now I do realize that some Calvinists are Hypers but avoid the use of that name in identifying themselves because of the ridiculousness of the teaching of double predestination bothers their conscience and that might be why you believe they are rare but my experience tells me otherwise.
Once again, hypercalvinism is not defined as a belief in double predestination. It's defined as the denial of the indiscriminate offer of the gospel and the denial of the duty of all sinners to believe in Christ. How many of those do you know?

He is using what you have already admitted is a definition that is fluid in its common use. But suppose there is a "technical" definition. The technical definition to which you refer is that made by Calvinists for Calvinists
I don't know if it's made by Calvinists or not. I do know that it is the definition included in almost any theological dictionary, and if you are working in the area of theology, you usually take pains to use the theological definitions of the words or things get confusing pretty fast.

Warfield is of course a...Calvinist.
Yes, but nonetheless, theologians of all stripes consider his a definitive work in describing the different viewpoints. You won't get much argument from a conservative arminian or lutheran scholar, for instance, about the way he represents their viewpoint.

Read it and I think you'll understand why this is so.


Again, because salvation in the Arminian view is not certain it is by default placed as an eternal decree made in time.

Again, an eternal decree can't be decreed in time. A order of eternal decrees is a list giving the logical order of the items in the plan for salvation that God made before the foundation of the world. If something is only decreed in time, then it doesn't belong on a list of eternal decrees. It can't be in the plan if it is decided subsequent to the plan.
I know of none that teach that. I do know of many that teach man was created "morally perfect in knowledge, righteousness, and holiness" or any other relevant qualifiers but I don't know of one that simply leaves open the declaration that man was created "in the status of perfection" without qualifiers.
Those aren't qualifiers, since they aren't meant to exclusive, but rather explanatory.

You believe YOURS is the preeminent view and the ONLY LOGICAL choice.
No. I believe all the orders are logical. Some are more scriptural than others, but they are all logical.

Go ask the Supra-lapsarians that, this is what they believe.
No, it isn't. That's why the supra scheme is worded as it is, with no mention of salvation in the decree of election and reprobation. People are elected to eternal life, they'll say, and eternal separation, but they won't use the word salvation, because that would presuppose a fall, and you can't presuppose what comes later in the logical order. If an item on the list presupposes something, then the thing it presupposes has to go before it on the list of the logical order of the eternal decrees.
 

russell55

New Member
Alex Quackenbush said:
I guess they, Seminary Presidents and notable theologians. were waiting for you, an admitted non-theologian, to come and declare their ignorance. Look, you have the same Spirit of God they had and are quite capable of being illuminated as they were but your attitude is as condescending as it gets regarding these men of serious academic, theological and spiritual maturity. Maybe it is YOU that has it wrong...alas but it couldn't be right? Because you found some others that agree with you that must make YOU right and them wrong...right? Yeah...sure.
If I'd suggested they are wrong because they disagree with me, you might have a point. But I didn't. I suggested they are wrong because they disagree with
  • B. B. Warfield in what is widely considered an authoritative work on the subject.
  • Most theological dictionaries.
Me? I've simply read a whole lot on it so that I have a pretty good idea what the best sources for info on this subject are.
 
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