deacon jd said:
...My question is simple, and I have asked it before but I wanted to start this thread on it. If the KJV is not the perfect, inerrant Word of God in the English language then what is? If there isn't a perfect, inerrant English translation of the Bible then why isn't there? Isn't God powerful enough to see to it that we have the perfect, inerrant Word of God in our language?
Behind the questions of the OP, notice the assumptions are: 1) that it is
possible to have a perfect, inerrant translation of the Word of God in English; also 2) there can only be
one perfect, inerrant translation of the Word of God in English; and finally 3) God
must provide the perfect, inerrant translation of the Word of God in English.
Looking at these assumptions separately--
1) Yes, I believe it is
possible to have a perfect, inerrant translation of the Word of God in English.
But at first blush, it would seem improbable that the scriptures could have been transferred to the present day without loss, addition, or changes. Look at the natural obstacles... First, most scripture was recorded many years after the events which it describes which relies upon the individuals memory or collective verbal tradition (this is not a concern for most Baptists). Second, the writer recorded exactly God's intended message (this is usually the focus). Third, the writer's original autograph was copied by hand and remotely distributed and recopied over centuries (originals were eventually worn out or lost). Next, the extant fragmented copies are collected, compared, and reasonably reconstructed (textual criticism). Lastly, the reconstructed text is translated into another language. Rationally, it would seem implausible to receive the complete, unadulterated original message. The standard traditional Baptist position is that perfection, infallibility and inerrancy applies only to the original, Holy Spirit inspired autographs. With God, all things are possible... but that doesn't mean it has absolutely happened.
We need to recognize that we read a translation (unless you read Greek, Hebrew and/or Aramaic). If anything is certain about the process it is that there is no such thing as a 'perfect' transfer from the original language into the target language (inevitable loss). There is also no translation without some interpretation (inevitable alteration), and interpretation is opinion/consensus, and human opinions can be wrong. Unless, of course, there is supernatural intervention.
2) Is there only
one perfect, inerrant translation of the Word of God in English? There is no scriptural or empirical evidence that indicates that there is a limit (we don't want to place limits upon God, do we?). I find translation problems in all versions (including the KJV). Even the KJV translators stated in the preface to the readers that humans cannot produce something perfectly. Translators should, and do, utilize many previously published versions to prepare their text. Surely, perfect text cannot result from imperfect sources. The AV men admitted that these other translations were also the Word of God and we are well advised by them.
3) God
must provide the perfect, inerrant translation of the Word of God in English. God is not required to provide His Word in English. When the Bible says that His words will exist forever (Mat 24:35, Mk 13:31, Lk 21:33, Isa 40:8, 1 Pet 1:23, etc)
it does not prescribe that it must be in English. At the least, it is very arrogant of any group or individual to declare that they posses the Word of God exclusively.
Some folks may
choose to have
faith that God has
miraculously guided a translation. However, if there is no scriptural basis for this doctrine then it is not superior to any other sincere belief, and is in fact, a potentially dangerous heresy. They are insecure people that prefer a false assurance of certainty to a honest admission of doubt.
ne-Versionist, regardless of which version he/she champions, can support his/her claims with SCRIPTURE. 