Anthony Pritchard
Well-Known Member
I do not dispute that God uses His Word. My question remains unchanged.Why does scripture attribute the actions of draw, convict, and opened her heart to God. As I said, God took those actions, The message, the gospel was given to the eyewitnesses and they described the gospel to the inspired by God NT writers. When we are convicted of sin, by what we have learned from God's inspired word, we are convicted by the work product of the Holy Spirit. When Lydia heard the gospel message, the inspirited words of Paul, which were in a way she could understand,, that action by the Lord, "opened her heart"
If opening Lydia's heart merely means she heard an understandable presentation, why does Luke attribute the opening of her heart to the Lord rather than simply to the presentation itself?
Likewise, if conviction is nothing more than exposure to information, why does John 16:8 attribute conviction to the work of the Spirit?
My point is not that these actions occur apart from the Word, nor am I arguing for any particular theory of grace. My point is that Scripture consistently attributes these actions to God. The means by which God acts does not negate the fact that God is presented as the actor.