The preposition "of" in the sense of "to".

[George Antonios]

I need your help, Bible scholars.

My hyper-dispensationalist brethren falsely (IMO) appeal to:

Gal 2:7 But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;

whereby the preposition of is taken to indicate that Peter went on preaching a different gospel to the Jews than the one Paul went on preaching to the Gentiles; that is, they believe there were 2 different gospels being simultaneously preached (only during the 1st century) by both groups of apostles, each gospel producing a different spiritual entity (millennial believers VS body-of-Christ believers).

I understand that the of here (Gal.2:7) bears the sense "to", because of the verse that follows:

Gal 2:8 (For he that wrought effectually in Peter to the apostleship of the circumcision, the same was mighty in me toward the Gentiles )

I need your help to give me other examples in the King James Bible where "of" can mean "to".
If you will appeal to the Greek or Hebrew, please be sure your example upholds the text of the KJB.
Even if you don't believe the KJB, that is not the point here. The point is that many hyper-dispensationalists do, and they will not be persuaded by an argument that denies the English reading of the reformation text.

Please stick to the request of the OP.

Thank you guys

 

[Conan]

Sorry I can't get to my Hastings Bible dictionary now. But it should have what you need.

• James Hastings, ed., A Dictionary of the Bible, Dealing with its Language, Literature, and Contents, including the Biblical Theology, edited by James Hastings, with the assistance of John Selbie, A.B. Davidson, S.R. Driver, H.B. Swete. 5 volumes. Edinburgh: T. & T. Clark, 1898-1906. Reprinted by Hendrickson Publishers in 1988. This Bible dictionary contains many articles explaining in great detail the vocabulary and idioms of the King James Version. For example, the entry "OF" in volume 3 fills two whole pages with examples and explanations of the archaic usages of this preposition in the KJV.

 

[Van]

Sorry also, as your question goes far beyond my poor capacity to add or detract.

The Greek word in question is "ho" or a definite article in the Genitive Case, Single Feminine.

I see that several translations render it "to the" rather than "of the" but the claim could still be made, one gospel for the Jews, and another for the Gentiles. However, the actual gospel could be the same, just being presented to differing groups by differing witnesses, perhaps stressing differing aspects of the same gospel.

 

[Martin Marprelate]

Hello @George Antonios,
The KJV is not wrong to say 'of' since the case is indeed Genitive, but I seem to recall learning that there are nine different uses of the genitive in Greek, and one can only find which is correct by looking at the context or by comparing Scripture with Scripture.
You are right that verse 8 suggests that the sense of 'to' is correct (the NKJV has 'for' which is also good), and Acts of the Apostles 22:21 might be helpful to your argument. I don't really have anything to suggest. Maybe @John of Japan, who is also a Dispensationalist, might be able to help.

 

[kyredneck]

they believe there were 2 different gospels being simultaneously preached

It was TWO different audiences with TWO different 'tones' to the message. One audience belonged to a covenant that was very soon to come to a violent end (1 Peter 4:7), while the other audience belonged to a covenant of which there would be no end.

 

[George Antonios]

It was TWO different audiences with TWO different 'tones' to the message. One audience belonged to a covenant that was very soon to come to a violent end (1 Peter 4:7), while the other audience belonged to a covenant of which there would be no end.

I basically agree, but please help with the OP, thanks.

 

[kyredneck]

I basically agree, but please help with the OP, thanks.

It should help to realize the difference is not in the gospel per se, but what was needful for the audience to hear. Acts of the Apostles 3:23

 

[Alan Gross]

The point is that many hyper-dispensationalists do, and they will not be persuaded by an argument that denies the English reading of the reformation text.

I believe the KJB.*

I say stick with the text, but whether consulting Hebrew and Greek, or not, I have to strongly encourage everyone to not appeal to, or lean on, 'a preposition', when it comes to Eternal Salvation.

Galatians 2:7 - Bible Verse Meaning and Commentary

That said, Gill handles it typically Spiritually sober::Galatians 2:7

But contrariwise, when they saw that the Gospel

"James, Cephas, and John, were so far from blaming or correcting anything in the apostle's ministry, or adding anything to it, that they highly approved of it;

"and as a token of their agreement with him and Barnabas, gave them the right hand of fellowship: the reasons of their so doing are inserted here, and in the following verse, and in the next to that: the reason here given is, because

they saw that the Gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto
me, as the Gospel of the circumcision was to Peter;

"by "the uncircumcision and circumcision" are meant the Gentiles and Jews; see ( rom 2:26 rom 2:27 ) ( 3:30 ) by the Gospel of the one, and the Gospel of the other, two Gospels are not designed, for there is but one Gospel, and not another.

"Paul did not preach one Gospel unto the uncircumcised Gentiles, and Peter another to the circumcised Jews;

"but the same Gospel was preached by both, and is so called with respect to the different persons to whom it was preached by these apostles.

"The Apostle Paul was ordained a minister of the Gentiles, and he chiefly preached among them, though not to them only.

"Peter was principally employed among the Jews, though also as he had opportunity he sometimes preached to the Gentiles: however, the subject of both their ministrations was the Gospel, which is said to be "committed" to them, as a trust deposited in their hands, not by man, but by God;

"the management of which required both prudence and faithfulness, and which were eminently seen in these good stewards of the mysteries of God.

"This being observed by the apostles at Jerusalem, they came into an agreement that one part should discharge their ministry among the Gentiles, and the other among the Jews."

That's it. One Gospel.

* Note: from: The Baptist Bride

"New Testament Baptist churches are not bibliolatrists; they do not worship the Bible, but they worship the infallible Author of the Bible, that is GOD.

"And they honor His counsel with the utmost sincerity.

"Their blessed Head and Groom has admonished them, saying:

“Prove all things: hold fast that which is good; ...

Speak thou the things which become sound doctrine; ...

Try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world”

(I Thessalonians 5:21;Titus 2:1; I John 4:1)."

 

[George Antonios]

I believe the KJB.*

I say stick with the text, but whether consulting Hebrew and Greek, or not, I have to strongly encourage everyone to not appeal to, or lean on, 'a preposition', when it comes to Eternal Salvation.

Galatians 2:7 - Bible Verse Meaning and Commentary

That said, Gill handles it typically Spiritually sober::Galatians 2:7

But contrariwise, when they saw that the Gospel

"James, Cephas, and John, were so far from blaming or correcting anything in the apostle's ministry, or adding anything to it, that they highly approved of it;

"and as a token of their agreement with him and Barnabas, gave them the right hand of fellowship: the reasons of their so doing are inserted here, and in the following verse, and in the next to that: the reason here given is, because

they saw that the Gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto
me, as the Gospel of the circumcision was to Peter;

"by "the uncircumcision and circumcision" are meant the Gentiles and Jews; see ( rom 2:26 rom 2:27 ) ( 3:30 ) by the Gospel of the one, and the Gospel of the other, two Gospels are not designed, for there is but one Gospel, and not another.

"Paul did not preach one Gospel unto the uncircumcised Gentiles, and Peter another to the circumcised Jews;

"but the same Gospel was preached by both, and is so called with respect to the different persons to whom it was preached by these apostles.

"The Apostle Paul was ordained a minister of the Gentiles, and he chiefly preached among them, though not to them only.

"Peter was principally employed among the Jews, though also as he had opportunity he sometimes preached to the Gentiles: however, the subject of both their ministrations was the Gospel, which is said to be "committed" to them, as a trust deposited in their hands, not by man, but by God;

"the management of which required both prudence and faithfulness, and which were eminently seen in these good stewards of the mysteries of God.

"This being observed by the apostles at Jerusalem, they came into an agreement that one part should discharge their ministry among the Gentiles, and the other among the Jews."

That's it. One Gospel.

* Note: from: The Baptist Bride

"New Testament Baptist churches are not bibliolatrists; they do not worship the Bible, but they worship the infallible Author of the Bible, that is GOD.

"And they honor His counsel with the utmost sincerity.

"Their blessed Head and Groom has admonished them, saying:

“Prove all things: hold fast that which is good; ...

Speak thou the things which become sound doctrine; ...

Try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world”

(I Thessalonians 5:21;Titus 2:1; I John 4:1)."

Thanks but that in no way addressed the very specific need of the OP. Please help with the OP.