Yes you did. John 16's contextual discussion is Jesus to his Disciples John 17 Is Jesus discussion with the Father in prayer
Contexts were jumped.
The prayer was in the presence of His apostles and about His apostles and he prayed in harmony with what he told the apostles. Hence, your point is moot!
Yes but no where did they use scriptures alone. Scriptures were used to make a point or provide support. It wasn't used solitarily.
No oral traditions were used! What was used was DIRECT INSPIRED VERBAL prophetic Word coupled with INSPIRED SCRIPTURE - but no oral traditions were used as the authorized basis to establish doctrine.
Neither he nor you have cut the pass to anything. In order to apply his theology he must come up with a false delemma in order to provide his point for a self authenticating bible.
There is no false dilemma! Scripture only promises the Holy Spirit would bring back things to THE APOSTLES MEMORY not the disciples of the apostles. Scripture only promises future generations would be brought to Christ through the word of the APOSTLES not the apostles words through their disciples. Nowhere in scripture does God promise perpetuity of doctrine and practice through the transmission of ORAL TRADITIONS received and passed down on the basis of MEMORY. But to the contrary, Peter directly states that apostolic oral traditions held in memory by their disciples was LESS STABLE than the prophetic scripture. Prophetic Scripture was "MORE SURE" and that is what they should "TAKE HEED UNTO" (2 Pet. 1:15-19).
He must ignore Paul where he told Timothy showing the oral teachings given to him as well as the scriptures Both in scriptures are claimed here to Timothy not the one to the exclusion of the other.
Again you distort the scriptures completey. It was the scriptures that were used to train Timothy by his mother and grandmother. It was DIRECT INSPIRED prophetic Word by Paul used to teach Timothy. However, the ONLY ALL SUFFICIENT SOURCE for teaching others doctrine, instruction, correction and reproof is NOT ORAL TRADITIONS but "all scriptures" (2 Tim. 3:16-17).
The complete and total sufficiency is communicated by three terms used together in the same two texts:
1. May be "perfect" (telios = complete)
2. "throughly furnished" = (comprehensively furnished)
3. "for ALL good works" = (comprehensive of all "good" works possible)
And Calvin and you ignore history. The NT at earliest could be provided for in 70 AD. So the first Generation of christians were ignored by God? I think not. Jesus established his Apostles by his Holy Spirit to proclaim the truth long before it was written.
They had the present INSPIRED PROPHETS SPEAKING, plus inspired scriptures supporting what they spoke (Bereans- Acts 17:17) progressively supply the authorized replacement for ORAL teaching (2 Pet. 1:15-19) that was "MORE SURE" than fallible human memory (2 Pet. 1:15, 1 Cor. 15:2). The oral teachings of Christ and the apostles would be corrupted by fallible memory just as the oral traditions of the prophets had been corrupted by faillible memory in the first century. Peter knew that and told them to "TAKE HEED" to something "MORE SURE" than the memory of oral apostolic teaching (2 Pet. 1:19).
Oh? And Peter gave the Gideons out on the Temple Mount in Acts 2? Clearly audiences all throughout Jesus ministry and most of the Apostolic Minsitry had only their word of testimony.
No, he gave out INSPIRED PROPHETIC WORD but he did not give out to his hearers INFALLIBLE MEMORIES of what he said nor did he promise them that their MEMORIES were the sacred depository for transmitting oral teachings from generation to generation. Indeed, he later did the very opposite critiquing their ability to remember oral teachings by commanding them to "take heed" of something "MORE SURE" than their memories of apostolic oral teaching (2 Pet. 1:15-19). He went on to confirm apostolic scriptures as that more sure word (2 Pet. 3:15-17).
Uh...Lets read the great commission
That is exactly what Jesus is saying here. Note no mention of bible here to pass on one generation to another. Or how about John 20 It is clear Jesus is entrusting His disciples to teach the gospel and is relying on the Holy Spirit to maintain this teaching until the end of the age. Again no mention of a book.
They obeyed his command! However, his command was not "teaching them that they would pass down what they were taught by memory to future generations"!!!! No, it is the Scriptures that were designed for that (2 Tim. 3:16-17) and it was their MEMORY that was critized as being dependable for that (2 Pet. 1:15,19) in comparison to the scriptures which were "MORE SURE" than memory.
Yeah? lets read that passage again Jesus is praying for the disciples to be sanctified through Gods word not their followers.
Just as he promises their followers would be brought to Christ "through your word" not "through your disciples memory of your word."
The apostles followers are mentioned later but about "your word look at what Jesus said earlier in verse 6 So the word he's talking about is his verbal word spoken to the disciples. Again this verse does not back you up but shows Jesus putting the Apostles to the task of proclaiming and not relying on a book. What cause the consistent oral teaching for all following believers is the Holy Spirit.
Of course at that precise moment all there was the oral teaching of Christ given to them to give to others and they did that. However, verse 20 speaks about all future generations of believers that would be brought to Christ through "your word" not through "the memory of your words by your disciples."
Again, you can't see the forrest for the tree you have stuck your nose against. "Through your word" is a statement by the omniscient Christ who would lead Peter to say that fallible memory of apostolic teaching is LESS SURE than their written witness which is "MORE SURE" than apostolic teaching as it is the same in nature that CONTINUED from the Old Testament Prophets to that time when all their oral teaching had been corrupted by fallible human memory.
What does that have to do with our discussion. Yes Jesus showed that the OT referred to him and his ministry. So. The OT prefigures Jesus in many ways and prophesied his first advent. So? Nothing mentioned in those two passages have anything to do with the topic. [/QUOTE]
Isaiah 8:16-18 has everything to do with this discussion because it is the prophetic promise of the completion of the Biblical canon and Jesus was very aware of that promise in regard to his apostles (Heb. 2:3-4,12-13) and the apostles became aware they were providing the completion to the Biblical canon (2 Thes. 2:13; 2 Pet. 3:15-17; Rev. 1:3; 22:18-19). This is the demise of your whole theory and this is the forest you cannot see because your nose is glued to either an oak or pine tree.