BobRyan
Well-Known Member
Here again it would be hard to argue historically that Baptists ever taught transubstantiation, or that they ever believed the bread BECOMES confected into God (by some unknown process lets say).
So using their statements AS if they did - is to actually infer MORE into their words than they ever claimed and is to in fact insert statements taht they explicitly denied in the 1700's.
This raises another problem. If it is so easy to put words in their mouth as they appeal to the same symbolism Christ used - then when that is done with Clement for the Lord's Supper (EVEN though he INSISTS on symbolism and metaphor in John 6) could that not be the SAME principle at work?
In other words - might it not turn out that Clement was no more thinking of the "Confection of God" than were the Baptists of the 1700's??
In Christ,
Bob
So using their statements AS if they did - is to actually infer MORE into their words than they ever claimed and is to in fact insert statements taht they explicitly denied in the 1700's.
This raises another problem. If it is so easy to put words in their mouth as they appeal to the same symbolism Christ used - then when that is done with Clement for the Lord's Supper (EVEN though he INSISTS on symbolism and metaphor in John 6) could that not be the SAME principle at work?
In other words - might it not turn out that Clement was no more thinking of the "Confection of God" than were the Baptists of the 1700's??
In Christ,
Bob