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The real reason I am KJVO

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annsni

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Askjo said:
Did I say that? It is your false question. Did I say that? It is your false question. The KJV translators were wise to select a right word during they translated from Greek to English. Wrong! It is your false comment.

You are pointing out that the KJV uses the same terms and therefore there is no contradictions. They were right to use different terms in the verses.

I pointed out that the original language uses the same words. If the MVs are incorrect for using the same words and therefore creating what you are calling a "contradiction', then you are saying that God wrote a contradiction Himself. There's no denying that Askjo.
 

annsni

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preachinjesus said:
This is like talking to a four year old...that wall is there you can't run into...no the wall isn't there...that wall is there you can't run into...no the wall isn't there, watch...boom...see the wall is there...no the wall isn't there...

I certainly am feeling kind of like that. But I have 4 kids. I'm patient. :laugh:
 

ray Marshall

New Member
Samuel Owen said:
M't:8:29: And, behold, they cried out, saying, What have we to do with thee, Jesus, thou Son of God? art thou come hither to torment us before the time? KJV

M’t:8:29: And behold they cried out, saying. What do we have to do with you Son of God?. Have you come here to torment us before the time. NASB

Seems the demons withheld some important information here. Jesus is left out!, well it only removes Jesus identity as the Son of God, effecting his relation to God as his son, and his deity, but no big deal. All it does is just a little damage to the doctrine of the person of Christ.

This keeps haunting me through out all this thread. This Dude keep on blabbling.
So here goes:
Answer not a fool according to his folly, lest thou also be like unto him.
Answer a fool according to his folly,lest he be wise in his own conceit.
 

franklinmonroe

Active Member
annsni said:
... Looking at the John 8:14 passage, there is a small change in there - don't know what it means. Can anyone read Greek and tell me what that last character that looks like a lower case n is? What does that change between the TR and the W&H?
The difference is between kia (most often "and" in English) and h (the Greek letter Heta pronounced like the long A in Able, and is generally translated "or"). Not to be confused in this position with ho (the femine definite article, "the")
 
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annsni

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franklinmonroe said:
The difference is between kia (most often "and" in English) and h (Heta pronounced like the long A in Able and means "or").

Here's the Greek from that link:

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 8:14 Greek NT: Textus Receptus (1550)
απεκριθη ιησους και ειπεν αυτοις καν εγω μαρτυρω περι εμαυτου αληθης εστιν η μαρτυρια μου οτι οιδα ποθεν ηλθον και που υπαγω υμεις δε ουκ οιδατε ποθεν ερχομαι και που υπαγω

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 8:14 Greek NT: Westcott/Hort
απεκριθη ιησους και ειπεν αυτοις καν εγω μαρτυρω περι εμαυτου αληθης εστιν η μαρτυρια μου οτι οιδα ποθεν ηλθον και που υπαγω υμεις δε ουκ οιδατε ποθεν ερχομαι η που υπαγω

Let's see if that shows up. This way someone can tell me the difference between the two. :)
 

franklinmonroe

Active Member
annsni said:
... Let's see if that shows up. This way someone can tell me the difference between the two.
I already did. The TR has "and" and the W/H has "or". It only affects the end of the verse where a TR text would read "whence I come, and whither I go" as apposed to "whence I come, or whither I go".
 

annsni

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franklinmonroe said:
I already did. The TR has "and" and the W/H has "or". It only affects the end of the verse wher the KJV has "whence I come, and whither I go" instead of "whence I come, or whither I go".

OK great. I wanted to be sure that my explanation in the other post made sense because after I read it, it looked dumb. LOL

So not much difference between the two. And certainly not dealing with the issue at hand. Thanks so much!!
 

stilllearning

Active Member
Hi preachinjesus

You said.........
“I wonder aloud if we will ever get to a place where we realize God changes people's lives and not the Bible. The Bible is merely a tool in the hands of an Almighty God through the influence of the Holy Spirit and example of Jesus Christ.”


Your right, about God changing people, and using the Bible to do it.

And your right, about the Bible being the tool that the Lord uses.

But I am right, when I point out, that messing with the Bible, makes it a less efficient tool for the Lord to use.
 

annsni

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stilllearning said:
Hi preachinjesus

You said.........



Your right, about God changing people, and using the Bible to do it.

And your right, about the Bible being the tool that the Lord uses.

But I am right, when I point out, that messing with the Bible, makes it a less efficient tool for the Lord to use.

Ummm - God used a donkey, didn't He? I've worked with donkeys - if God can use a donkey, He can certainly be efficient with anything He feels like. No need to worry about efficiency with Him.

Besides, we've seen so far nothing at all wrong/in error/corrupt in the MVs. This has been pretty easy so far! :thumbs:
 

franklinmonroe

Active Member
It is completely unnecessary to go to the supporting Greek. The KJV itself has the same issue using the English word "witness" --
If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true. (John 5:31, KJV)

I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me. (John 8:18, KJV)​
That His "witness is true" is implied (unless it is known to be a false statement, which would be a whole new problem).

According to the KJV, Jesus first says that if He bore "witness" of Himself it would not be true, but then He said that He actually does bear "witness" of Himself. So using only the KJV text, did Jesus say something untrue the first time, or the second time?
 
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annsni

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franklinmonroe said:
It is completely unnecessary to go to the supporting Greek. The KJV itself has the same issue using the English word "witness" --
If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true. (John 5:31, KJV)

I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me. (John 8:18, KJV)​
That His "witness is true" is implied (unless it is known to be a false statement, which would be a whole new problem).

Good call. Good call. :thumbs:
 
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