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The Reformation Study Bible

evangelist6589

evangelist6589

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annsni said:
I don't have it because I have other Bibles and it is not in my budget.
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Fortunately for me I am expecting a very large severance so I can charge my cards and then pay em off. But since I started a new job I have more money.
 
Y

Yeshua1

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V

Van

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Right, Y1, get an agenda driven translation and couple it with agenda driven study notes, and voila, a very good bible for Cals.
Anybodies ears tickling?
 
agedman

agedman

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I’m too old to worry anymore about getting a new reference Bible. I do very well with the NASB and trust it as the only one to recommend.

I am just not a big fan of versions that are more thought oriented. I prefer doing my own thinking.
 
Y

Yeshua1

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Van said:
Right, Y1, get an agenda driven translation and couple it with agenda driven study notes, and voila, a very good bible for Cals.
Anybodies ears tickling?
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Or could be seen as being a very good translation, with very good study notes in it.
I do not agree with all of its notes, but one would learn much better under those notes than the notes of authors denying reformed salvation method!
 
TCassidy

TCassidy

Late-Administator Emeritus
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agedman said:
Here is a graph:
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The problem I see with your graph is that there is no such thing as a "word for word" translation. The most we can say is that some translations use a more verbal and formal equivalence technique in translating.

For instance, the NASB, which you prefer (it would also be my bible of choice if limited to Alexandrian based bibles) reads, in 2 timothy 3:16 All Scripture is inspired by God. Using 4 words "is inspired by God" to translate one Greek word "θεοπνευστος" (theopneustos). The KJV, which many claim is a "word for word" (including the chart) translation, uses 6 words (is given by inspiration of God) to translate the one, single Greek word.

The WEB bible (my modern version of choice) redacts the old ASV (which reads "inspired of God is") to read "is God-breathed" which is about as close as you can come to a "word for word" translation. :)
 
Y

Yeshua1

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TCassidy said:
The problem I see with your graph is that there is no such thing as a "word for word" translation. The most we can say is that some translations use a more verbal and formal equivalence technique in translating.

For instance, the NASB, which you prefer (it would also be my bible of choice if limited to Alexandrian based bibles) reads, in 2 timothy 3:16 All Scripture is inspired by God. Using 4 words "is inspired by God" to translate one Greek word "θεοπνευστος" (theopneustos). The KJV, which many claim is a "word for word" (including the chart) translation, uses 6 words (is given by inspiration of God) to translate the one, single Greek word.

The WEB bible (my modern version of choice) redacts the old ASV (which reads "inspired of God is") to read "is God-breathed" which is about as close as you can come to a "word for word" translation. :)
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Good points made here, as there is really no all word for word translation, but better to have a translation to used as formal a method as possible, as should be word for word as much as the construction/wording used would allow for coming over into Englsih!
 
agedman

agedman

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TCassidy said:
The problem I see with your graph is that there is no such thing as a "word for word" translation. The most we can say is that some translations use a more verbal and formal equivalence technique in translating.

For instance, the NASB, which you prefer (it would also be my bible of choice if limited to Alexandrian based bibles) reads, in 2 timothy 3:16 All Scripture is inspired by God. Using 4 words "is inspired by God" to translate one Greek word "θεοπνευστος" (theopneustos). The KJV, which many claim is a "word for word" (including the chart) translation, uses 6 words (is given by inspiration of God) to translate the one, single Greek word.

The WEB bible (my modern version of choice) redacts the old ASV (which reads "inspired of God is") to read "is God-breathed" which is about as close as you can come to a "word for word" translation. :)
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Agreed, but the question ask for clarification.

By using a chart, it gives both the spectrum of basic intent behind a translation and which translations were primarily positioned on that spectrum. Over all these charts have purpose as a quick visual communication tool more acceptable than my long posts that go on, and on and....

The point was, I like to do my own thinking, not rely upon what others think I should think when I actually do think. :)
 
TCassidy

TCassidy

Late-Administator Emeritus
Administrator
Agreed. I just take exception to the claim of "word for word" translation which is a myth usually proffered by those ignorant of translation mechanics (think: KJVOs). :)
 
R

Rippon

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agedman said:
Here is a graph:

https://www.ucg.org/files/images/articleimages/types-of-bible-translations.jpg

See where the popular NIV is in comparison to the NASB as an example.
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Your chart is all messed up.

The HCSB and TNIV should be placed next to each other.

The ESV needs to be brought several clicks more to the right --next to the ESV and to the left of the HCSB.

While I appreciate the NJB and plan on doing a thread on it in the near future it is decidely to the right of both the TNIV and 84 NIV.
I’m not suggesting one is weaker, I’m showing the mode/method used and if I want to rely on how someone thought it should read as compared to my own examination and conclusions.
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You are confused on several counts.

All translations interpret and most are not the product of a single translator.

Just about every translation translates according to the clause or phrase --not by isolated word chunks. They are translated sense-by-sense as John Purvey tried to explain back in the late 14th century.
 
V

Van

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RSB said:
Ephesians 1::4 he chose us in him. Paul rejoices that God chooses people for a relationship with Himself (Rom. 8:29–33;
9:6–26; 11:5, 7, 28; 16:13; Col. 3:12; 1 Thess. 1:4;2 Thess. 2:13; Titus 1:1). Paul says explicitly that the sole ground of God’s predestinating love is His own good pleasure (vv. 5, 10; cf. Deut. 7:7, 8), not anything the elect have done or will do (Rom. 9:11, 16).
“In him” means that God’s choice always has had in view a fallen people in union with their Redeemer (2 Tim. 1:9).
Cf. 1 Pet.1:18–21; Rev. 13:8.
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Here is an example of the "study notes provided by this agenda driven version.
1) No discussion of the two very different interpretations of this phrase, (a) chose us individually in Him, or (b) chose us corporately in Him.

2) Next, the idea behind "in Him" is overlooked.

3) Paul does not say explicitly or implicitly that the sole ground (only basis) of His election was God's unconditional action. What the verse (5) actually indicates is that the election before creation was according to God's redemption purpose and plan.

4) Lastly, "in Him" refers to our status (spiritually located within the body of Christ and spiritually alive together with Christ.)

Bottom line, this is not a study bible but an indoctrination bible.
 
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