Originally posted by Eric B:
The same can be asked; whose organization, are we bound instead? Just the one with the most seniority? Then, the question becomes which time period of this organization; since it has changed drastically oover the centuries?
All you are doing is shifting the problem from individual men to a group of men.
Not to a mere "organization" or "group of men" but to the Church "which is His Body, the fullness of Him who fills all in all" (Eph 1:23) and which is the "pillar and ground of the truth" (1 Tim 3:15). The Church is no more just a mere "group of men" than the Bible is just a bunch of books written by a bunch of mere men. The same Spirit, who inspired men to write Scriptures, guides the men who constitute the Church into the correct identification of the canon (a process completed at the end of the 4th century) and the correct interpretation of the fundamental teaching of Scripture.
Also, I submit that the charge of "drastic change" of a given organization with time, must be balanced by the strong probability that the one making that claim is more than likely using an
anachronistic interpretation of the NT as the standard by which that alleged "drastic change" is being "measured".
Also, just noticed:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr /> Yet despite these realities, many folks here will persist in proclaiming their right to privately interpret Scripture, apart from the Spirit guided tradition of the Church, despite the fact that Peter said Scripture is not of private interpretation (2 Peter 1:20).
"Private" there means "esoteric"; meaning arrived at by some secret means not obvious to any reader. </font>[/QUOTE]Really? This from Strong's definition for the word translated "private" in that verse:
of any private
New Testament Greek Definition:
2398 idios {id'-ee-os}
of uncertain affinity;; adj
AV - his own 48, their own 13, privately 8, apart 7, your own 6,
his 5, own 5, not tr 1, misc 20; 113
1) pertaining to one's self, one's own, belonging to one's self
(See a lot pertaining to the individual, nothing necessarily in regards to the "esoteric")
This is what "apostolic tradition" would come into play. But this tradition would not be anything other than what was in what became eventually written down and circulated as the NT.
Yet you've asserted, without proving, that every detail and nuance of oral apostlic teaching was ultimately committed to Scripture. (There is certainly not a statement in Scripture that teaches this alleged eventuality.) The NT wasn't written in a vacuum, nor was it meant to be a systematic catechism. It's various books (primarily epistles) were written to local congregations (or individuals), founded by the apostles and thus already familiar with their teaching and praxis, to correct certain extant misconceptions and heresies and not to be stand-alone comprehensive handbooks for the Christian life divorced of the ecclessiastical context in which they were written.