Heavenly Pilgrim
New Member
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DW: Paul's word in the very context of justification of Abraham that it is "the ungodly" that God justifies. Did God justify Abraham? If so, he was "ungodly" as that is the only kind of man Paul says God justifies:But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
Again you are taking the word or variations of the word “justify” and applying a very narrow application. I say with the Apostle James that faith alone will not save anyone because if there are no just works that follow, ones faith is simply dead. We are ‘justified’ in three tenses not simply one. We have been justified, we are being justified, and we will be justified. The righteous can and are justified. Here is an example of the righteous being justified. I believe that when we act in a just manner, God justifies our actions as being just and righteous. De 25:1 ¶ If there be a controversy between men, and they come unto judgment, that the judges may judge them; then they shall justify the righteous, and condemn the wicked.
DW: 2. Moses points out that he was a Gentile or Chaldean by birth:
HP: Your logic is flawed. It matters not where one came out of, or what others were practicing. Again, Enoch is a shining example.
DW: However, Romans 4:5 should be plenty proof as the ONLY KIND OF MAN God justifies is "the ungodly" and since God justified Abraham by faith INSTEAD OF by works he must have been "UNGODLY"
HP: Simply false. Your OSAS will have it no other way, but because A justifies B does not mean A cannot justify C on different grounds under different conditions. All in this dispensation are indeed lost sinners, but there is evidence that in the OT that may not always have been the case. Limit your comments to this dispensation and I would be inclined to agree at least on some points.