rigz
Member
Actually it's more than definitions but bait-and-switch; somehow God instructing Adam that He MUST/MAY not eat of a fruit becomes Adam may eat of the same. Equivocation at work here where may is given two meanings in one sentenceBut that was what you kept asking for and kept claiming that you were not given. Now that you have unequivocally been given a precise definition you accuse of "getting lost in definitions." You seem to want it have it both ways.![]()
Thank you @TCassidy! On this we are in agreement. May/must not means God's will is do notHe is telling us we may not (we don't have his permission) to commit adultery, but if we do so, we will be held accountable for our disobedience. That is why God included the consequences of our actions with his command.
So when somebody says God meant they may eat of the fruit, they really mean God meant exact opposite of His instructions!
Agreed. God's Will is simply His intent, purpose, and we can discern this from what He says. Here is the point; if somebody believes that all that comes to pass MUST have been decreed by God, and nothing comes to pass except it was decreed, then the Fall must have been decreed, right?Except God did NOT "really want Adam to eat." He made that clear. "No, not to eat." But He allowed Adam to disobey Him, and held Adam accountable for his disobedience.![]()
And if the Fall was decreed, then God's intent was that Adam may eat while His words were 'do not eat'. This is another notion that we have disabused right here namely; God does not DECREE everything that comes to pass, else He is the Author of all that comes to pass including sin and evil
Just because God knew, and had prepared for it, did not mean it was in God's perfect, decretive will for Adam to eat.
I know the sun will rise tomorrow, but I did not cause it to do so.
I know it will rain tonight, and I am prepared for it, but I did not cause it to rain.![]()
120% true, and we are in agreement sir!
I love your simple and concise analogies.
Point is foreknowledge does not equate to authorship. God foreknew man would fall but He never caused the Fall.
One may reason that if God foreknew there would be evil and He went ahead and created man and angels that He is somewhat responsible for not avoiding it. But who said God is morally responsible for preventing evil? To whom is He responsible?
The free rational agents remain the authors of sin. If the only free agent is God, then He is totally responsible for our actions.
Look sir, I know this is sounding repetitive but the idea that men are not really free given God immutably and irresistibly controls their very thoughts and intents is central to John Calvin theology ( not necessarily Calvinism)