You see the word "reveal" and think it has to be physically visible. Think spiritually. When Jesus told Nathanael...
"“Because I said to you, ‘I saw you under the fig tree,’ do you believe? You will see greater things than these.” And He said to him, “Most assuredly, I say to you, hereafter you shall see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of Man.” (John 1:50 - 51)
Now when exactly did Nathanael see this? During Christ's earthly ministry? At His 2nd Coming? Are we even to take it so literally? No. The seeing is figurative - just as the appearing in AD 70 is. But though it is figurative it is nonetheless real
But Tom, how do you know what Nathanael saw since it is not recorded. Just because we have no record of an event doesn't mean it didn't happen and just what is a the "spiritual" meaning anyway of what Jesus promised them (the word see [
optomai] is 2nd person plural)?
We have a record of at least one angel appearing to Jesus in a very real way...
Luke 22:43 And there appeared (optomai) an angel unto him from heaven, strengthening him.
So at least Luke witnessed this event, or it was recounted to him.
In addition we do have records of angels appearing to do some very earthy things (like wearing clothes, sitting, speaking):
John 20
11 But Mary stood without at the sepulchre weeping: and as she wept, she stooped down, and looked into the sepulchre,
12 And seeth two angels in white sitting, the one at the head, and the other at the feet, where the body of Jesus had lain.
13 And they say unto her, Woman, why weepest thou? She saith unto them, Because they have taken away my Lord, and I know not where they have laid him.
14 And when she had thus said, she turned herself back, and saw Jesus standing, and knew not that it was Jesus.
Tom, it really seems to me that full preterism has a handy tool called "allegorization" or "spiritualization" to apply whenever things start falling apart with the interpretation.
I fully understand that allegory, imagery, etc are varifiable tools used in the Scripture, however it does seem a really big stretch (IMO) to allegorize the coming of the Roman armies and the destruction of the Temple in AD70 as the Second Coming of Christ especially in light of the fact that some other seemingly very literal events are foretold in Scripture:
e.g.
2 Peter 3
10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.
11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?
13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.
Where is this new earth wherein dwells righteousness?
Begging your pardon my brother, but full preterism seems more to me to be on a plane with the doctrine of "Transubstantiation" where we are asked to lay reason and logic aside and accept the unreasonabe and less than logical.
True, God has asked us in the past to do just that but IMO full preterism has too many loose ends to snip and too many convoluted knots to untie.
Partial preterism has far fewer problems.
HankD