Three days and three nights

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

Gerhard Ebersoehn,
re: "The crux of your arguing simply is, Is the phrase "three days and three nights" idiomatic?"


No, that is not the crux. The crux is having those who say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language to provide examples proving that it is common.

BTW, what do you think it is that I am arguing?

No, I give up. I really can't make it out.

Now you say the 'TDsATNs' is <idiomatic>; now you say it's <common> ....

I cannot make YOU out. I have no problems with making TDsATNs out for literal.

It is used only two times in all of the Scriptures. Idiomatic use must be frequent use and must be colloquial. It ain't either.

 

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

They clearly are unthinking lot


You wouldn't see it if it knocked your teeth off.
If they took Jesus to Calvary (killed him) on Friday, what's the FIRST day they killed him? Friday or Saturday?
　


Working in reverse.
Do you also agree that if today is the THIRD day, the FIRST day is the day before yesterday?

Specifically if Sunday is the THIRD day, what would be the FIRST day?




You don't need extrabiblical literature on 'three days and three nights' to prop your weak position.

In any case, throwing the case back at you, do you know of the application of the phrase in a literal sense outside scriptures in the first century?:thumbs:

We have shown beyond doubt that the time referred to by the phrase in the gospels is much less than time covered in a literal 3 days and 3 nights meaning the phrase MUST have been idiomatic. Show us application elsewhere that it is NOT idiomatic

Listen Vooks, Luke 24:21 does not speak of "the third day"!

Luke 24:21 says "the third day SINCE these things were done", And THAT, makes "today" - Sunday, the fourth day if "these things that were done" and the day they were done on are INCLUDED.

But they are NOT included. "These things that were done" were done PRIOR to "the third day SINCE" them.

I cannot believe that you don't have ulterior motives by pretending the word "SINCE" does not modify "the third day"!!

I do not believe you!

 

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

We have shown beyond doubt that the time referred to by the phrase in the gospels is much less than time covered in a literal 3 days and 3 nights meaning the phrase MUST have been idiomatic. Show us application elsewhere that it is NOT idiomatic

Who are <we>?

You haven't shown a thing. "Three days and three nights" is / are three days and three nights.

BUT NOT ANY three days and three nights.

They must be the three days and three nights OF THE PASSOVER OF YAHWEH’S “THREE DAYS THICK DARKNESS” the 14th, 15th and 16th days of the First Month retrospectively because Jesus refers to them as fulfilled through Himself.

What is it that <<covered the time>> in the “three days and three nights” found in “ALL the Prophets” some way or another? That is where you have gone off the tar already.


And why should <<the time covered>> by whatever be <<meaning the phrase MUST have been idiomatic>>?

 

[vooks]

Listen Vooks, Luke 24:21 does not speak of "the third day"!

Luke 24:21 (KJV)
But we trusted that it had been he which should have redeemed Israel: and beside all this, to day is the third day since these things were done

It says EXACTLY that

Luke 24:21 says "the third day SINCE these things were done", And THAT, makes "today" - Sunday, the fourth day if "these things that were done" and the day they were done on are INCLUDED.

Nonsensical as you can get. How can the third day be the fourth day? Exactly what's the point in mentioning the days in the first place

But they are NOT included. "These things that were done" were done PRIOR to "the third day SINCE" them.

They were not done PRIOR. That's your PRESUMPTION. You are reading your own bias into the scripture. We are busy ascertaining WHEN Jesus died and you are refuting Holy Spirit

Show me ANY example from scriptures where the counting is done, where 'first','second'.....appears and the day it begins is omitted. On the other hand, you have countless examples showing you that counting begins the very material day/year.

God starts creation TODAY and the next day is the SECOND day. You take your son to school TODAY and the next day will be his SECOND day in school.

I cannot believe that you don't have ulterior motives by pretending the word "SINCE" does not modify "the third day"!!

SINCE does not modify nothing. How else would the statement make sense if you are given the time element (third day) WITHOUT explaining WHEN the period began?

Try and rephrase that statement omitting the word 'SINCE'.

I do not believe you!

Believe scriptures instead, it's more important and you are busy running away from them

 

[vooks]

Who are <we>?

You haven't shown a thing. "Three days and three nights" is / are three days and three nights.

Yes and they are also THREE days. Any period covered by three literal days and three literal nights has MORE than THREE days by Jewish reckoning

BUT NOT ANY three days and three nights.

Agreed, the three days and three nights are THREE days Friday,Saturday and Sunday.

They must be the three days and three nights OF THE PASSOVER OF YAHWEH’S “THREE DAYS THICK DARKNESS” the 14th, 15th and 16th days of the First Month retrospectively because Jesus refers to them as fulfilled through Himself.

MUST? Presumptions galore
Did they slit Jesus throat as well seeing he was a Passover lamb?

 

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

Yes and they are also THREE days. Any period covered by three literal days and three literal nights has MORE than THREE days by Jewish reckoning


Agreed, the three days and three nights are THREE days Friday,Saturday and Sunday.


MUST? Presumptions galore
Did they slit Jesus throat as well seeing he was a Passover lamb?

Beautiful how you slit your own throat, mate. Saved me the mess.

 

[vooks]

Beautiful how you slit your own throat, mate. Saved me the mess.

Sarcasm won't add reason nor logic to your illogical position.

Do you have a family? What was your son's FIRST day at school? The day he reported or the day after?
Your own journalism must be a bunch of illiterates
http://www.timeslive.co.za/entertai...-their-kids-on-the-first-day-of-school?page=1

Your theories that because lambs were slain on a particular day, Jesus MUST have been slain on the same day are hogwash. You should be interrogating your 'MUST' in the first place. Should you start with your presumptions or facts staring at you?

 

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

Sarcasm won't add reason nor logic to your illogical position.

Do you have a family? What was your son's FIRST day at school? The day he reported or the day after?
Your own journalism must be a bunch of illiterates
http://www.timeslive.co.za/entertai...-their-kids-on-the-first-day-of-school?page=1

Your theories that because lambs were slain on a particular day, Jesus MUST have been slain on the same day are hogwash. You should be interrogating your 'MUST' in the first place. Should you start with your presumptions or facts staring at you?

...making an overkill of yourself...

 

[rstrats]

vooks,
re: "If they took Jesus to Calvary (killed him) on Friday, what's the FIRST day they killed him? Friday or Saturday?

Naturally it would be Friday. And then the first day since they killed Him would be Saturday.
　


re: "Do you also agree that if today is the THIRD day, the FIRST day is the day before yesterday?"

Yes.
　


re: "Specifically if Sunday is the THIRD day, what would be the FIRST day?"

Friday would be the first day. And Monday would be the 3rd day since Friday.
　



re: "You don't need extrabiblical literature..."

Again, I'm not limiting my request to extrabiblical literature. Scriptural examples will be fine.
　


re: "...do you know of the application of the phrase in a literal sense outside scriptures in the first century?"

No; but then I haven't looked for any.
　



re: "We have shown beyond doubt that the time referred to by the phrase in the gospels is much less than time covered in a literal 3 days and 3 nights meaning the phrase MUST have been idiomatic."

I'm not saying anything about a literal 3 days and 3 nights - a full 72 hours. And I'm not saying that it isn't idiomatic - it may be or it may not be. The question for the purpose of this topic is about it being a common idiom. In order for someone to say that it is common, there would have to be examples to support that assertion.
　
　
　
　
　
　

 

[rstrats]

Gerhard Ebersoehn,
re: "No, I give up. I really can't make it out."

So how can you say I'm arguing something if you are not aware of the argument?
　

re: "Now you say the 'TDsATNs' is <idiomatic>; now you say it's <common> ...."

What!! How on earth do you get that from anything I've said?

 

[Darrell C]

Darrell C,
re: "The verse I quoted is a first century statement that shows that the Lord's meaning does not have to include three literal days and nights, as it was said here...So how does this not answer the question?"


Many sixth day of the week crucifixion advocates say that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language. In order for them to legitimately assert that it was common, they would have to know of examples that show that it indeed was a common way of referring to elapsed periods of time, i.e., where a forecasted daytime and/or a night time could be counted when no part of the daytime and/or no part of the night time was actually involved. I don't see where you have provided such examples.

Maybe that is due to being so enthralled with what sixth day advocates have to say you have lost the ability to compute what I have said?

The Lord also says three days. What's not to understand He was not demanding three days and nights?

And Vooks has quoted the Law and shown three days can entail the time of a day until the following third day which does not include three nights?

Can you just tell me why you spend so much time with this?


God bless.

 

[vooks]

vooks,
re: "If they took Jesus to Calvary (killed him) on Friday, what's the FIRST day they killed him? Friday or Saturday?

Naturally it would be Friday.

Excellent. Now, Friday would be FIRST day of what? First,Second,Third Don't exist in a vacuum; if it is days, it has to be FIRST since something

And then the first day since they killed Him would be Saturday.

Now you are tying yourself in knots. If Friday was the FIRST day since they killed him, how can Saturday, the day after be FIRST day as well? Every time there is a reckoning of time, it is ALWAYS since some fixed event, otherwise you won't make sense.

There very day God commenced creation is called the FIRST day. The next day is called the SECOND day. This means that from the inspired scriptures, we reckon days from the very date of an event and not the day after.

Could you please share one scriptural instance where the day following an event is regarded as the FIRST and not the SECOND day? I have shared several supporting my logic. Support yours with scriptures.

re: "Do you also agree that if today is the THIRD day, the FIRST day is the day before yesterday?"

Yes.

Excellent

So if Jesus rose again the THIRD day(obviously third day since he died not since he was born!), is there any other conclusion you can draw other than he rose the day following the day after he died?
1 Corinthians 15:3 (KJV)
And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures

re: "Specifically if Sunday is the THIRD day, what would be the FIRST day?"

Friday would be the first day. And Monday would be the 3rd day since Friday.

English may not be your first language but surely you can't be this obtuse.
In what sense would Friday be FIRST day?
Or if Friday would the the FIRST day, wouldn't Saturday,Sunday and MONDAY be the SECOND ,THIRD and FOURTH days respectively?
How then can Monday be BOTH FOURTH and THIRD day with regard to the same event?

re: "You don't need extrabiblical literature..."

Again, I'm not limiting my request to extrabiblical literature. Scriptural examples will be fine.

Please share with me scriptural application of 'nights and days' phrase where it is obviously literal as opposed to idiomatic
　

re: "...do you know of the application of the phrase in a literal sense outside scriptures in the first century?"

No; but then I haven't looked for any.

why not?
　

re: "We have shown beyond doubt that the time referred to by the phrase in the gospels is much less than time covered in a literal 3 days and 3 nights meaning the phrase MUST have been idiomatic."

I'm not saying anything about a literal 3 days and 3 nights - a full 72 hours. And I'm not saying that it isn't idiomatic - it may be or it may not be. The question for the purpose of this topic is about it being a common idiom. In order for someone to say that it is common, there would have to be examples to support that assertion.

Aha....common. How many references do you need to demonstrate it was 'common'?
Look at the phrase here by Josephus;
When Pilate refused, they fell prostrate around his palace and for five whole days and nights remained motionless in that position.
http://www.livius.org/pi-pm/pilate/pilate04.html

And
Matthew 4:2 (KJV)
And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred

Acts 20:31 (KJV)
Therefore watch, and remember, that by the space of three years I ceased not to warn every one night and day with tears


Interesting this Acts 20:31. Did Paul preach/warn continuously for 1,080 days and nights?
　
　

 

[rstrats]

Darrell C,
re: "Maybe that is due to being so enthralled with what sixth day advocates have to say you have lost the ability to compute what I have said?"

The answer to your question is no. I have indeed understood your comments. It's just that you haven't provided any writing that shows a phrase being used which says that a daytime or a night time was to be involved with an event when the actual event couldn't have included at least a part of the daytime or at least a part of the night time.
　


re: "The Lord also says three days. What's not to understand He was not demanding three days and [three] nights?"

Why did He say three nights if He knew it was only going to be for two nights?




re: "And Vooks has quoted the Law and shown three days can entail the time of a day until the following third day which does not include three nights?

Now here I don't understand your question.
　



re: "Can you just tell me why you spend so much time with this?"

I spend a lot of time on a number of things. For this one, Im simply curious to know if there is any proof that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language.

 

[Eliyahu]

Simple logic
1. THIRD DAY IS THE DAY AFTER TOMORROW
2. SUNDAY WAS THE THIRD DAY SINCE PASSION

More proof that the THIRD day is the day after tomorrow
Leviticus 7:16-17 (ASV)
16 But if the sacrifice of his oblation be a vow, or a freewill-offering, it shall be eaten on the day that he offereth his sacrifice; and on the morrow that which remaineth of it shall be eaten: 17 but that which remaineth of the flesh of the sacrifice on the third day shall be burnt with fire.


Luke 24:21 (ASV)
21 But we hoped that it was he who should redeem Israel. Yea and besides all this, it is now the third day since these things came to pass.

Luke 24:45-46 (ASV)
45 Then opened he their mind, that they might understand the scriptures; 46 and he said unto them, Thus it is written, that the Christ should suffer, and rise again from the dead the third day;

OT doesn't match exactly with Crucifixion and Resurrection.

As for Luke, we have to examine the translation of < Third> because it can mean < after 3 days>.

Do you think Jesus was in the earth for 3 nights and 3 days if He was killed on Friday and resurrected early in the morning of Sunday?

Friday Night, Saturday Night. Then only 2 nights
Friday Day for 30 minutes and Saturday Day time : Is it 2 days or 1 and 1/12 day? Is it 3 days ?

Is this calculation applied to Jonas in the big fish?


Again, none of the years around 31-32 AD had the Passover on Friday.


Eliyahu

 

[vooks]

Darrell C,
re: "Maybe that is due to being so enthralled with what sixth day advocates have to say you have lost the ability to compute what I have said?"

The answer to your question is no. I have indeed understood your comments. It's just that you haven't provided any writing that shows a phrase being used which says that a daytime or a night time was to be involved with an event when the actual event couldn't have included at least a part of the daytime or at least a part of the night time.

Neither have you 'any writing that shows a phrase being used which says that a daytime or a night time was to be involved with an event when the actual event MUST have included at least a part of the daytime or at least a part of the night time.'
　

re: "The Lord also says three days. What's not to understand He was not demanding three days and [three] nights?"

Why did He say three nights if He knew it was only going to be for two nights?

Because 'three days and three nights' means three days and three days don't need three days and three nights duration

re: "And Vooks has quoted the Law and shown three days can entail the time of a day until the following third day which does not include three nights?

Now here I don't understand your question.

Attempt comprehending my posts
　

re: "Can you just tell me why you spend so much time with this?"

I spend a lot of time on a number of things. For this one, Im simply curious to know if there is any proof that Matthew 12:40 is using common Jewish idiomatic language.

What's your definition of 'common' ?

 

[vooks]

OT doesn't match exactly with Crucifixion and Resurrection.

It was not supposed to 'match' whatever that means but to illustrate a BASIC , COMMON and SENSIBLE reckoning of time in the scriptures

As for Luke, we have to examine the translation of < Third> because it can mean < after 3 days>.

Take all your time my brother. I find it curious that suddenly you have developed a love for everything Greek. Have you run into something contradicting your long held beliefs?
Here is the Greek for your ease of reference;
https://www.teknia.com/greek-dictionary/tritos
Please share whatever conclusions you draw after your Greek treasure hunt:thumbs:

Do you think Jesus was in the earth for 3 nights and 3 days if He was killed on Friday and resurrected early in the morning of Sunday?

I don't think, I believe whatever scriptures tell me. You too should

Friday Night, Saturday Night. Then only 2 nights
Friday Day for 30 minutes and Saturday Day time : Is it 2 days or 1 and 1/12 day? Is it 3 days ?

It is THREE days by Jewish reckoning.
Here is some simple logic for you;
1. 'Three days and three nights'= 'three days'

2. Any three literal days and three literal nights duration/period covers more than 'three days'. Here is biblical proof of the same, 72 hours called 'four days'
http://www.baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=2215770&postcount=132

Is this calculation applied to Jonas in the big fish?

Follow the above logic and answer yourself

Again, none of the years around 31-32 AD had the Passover on Friday.



Eliyahu

We can waste time arguing about the year Jesus died, for which we would step outside scriptures or simply submit our prejudices and nonsensical hubris to the Word of God. There is no scholarly consensus on the exact year Jesus died

 

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

It was not supposed to 'match' whatever that means but to illustrate a BASIC , COMMON and SENSIBLE reckoning of time in the scriptures


Take all your time my brother. I find it curious that suddenly you have developed a love for everything Greek. Have you run into something contradicting your long held beliefs?
Here is the Greek for your ease of reference;
https://www.teknia.com/greek-dictionary/tritos
Please share whatever conclusions you draw after your Greek treasure hunt:thumbs:


I don't think, I believe whatever scriptures tell me. You too should


It is THREE days by Jewish reckoning.
Here is some simple logic for you;
1. 'Three days and three nights'= 'three days'

2. Any three literal days and three literal nights duration/period covers more than 'three days'. Here is biblical proof of the same, 72 hours called 'four days'
http://www.baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=2215770&postcount=132



Follow the above logic and answer yourself



We can waste time arguing about the year Jesus died, for which we would step outside scriptures or simply submit our prejudices and nonsensical hubris to the Word of God. There is no scholarly consensus on the exact year Jesus died

Post with some merit (the last point e.g.), but demerits which cancel out every good thing in it.

WHY?

Four reasons,

One,
The writer has no idea of IDIOM, in this case, that 'after three days' in Matthew 28:63, 'meta treis hehmeras' is IDIOM for "ON the third day" not only in Greek, but in more than one modern languages.

Two,
The writer has no idea of METAPHOR or FIGURATIVE language, in this case, accepting the 'thought', that <<<Jesus was in the earth>>> for "three (literal) days and three (literal) nights" while the actual phrase reads "in the HEART of the earth" which obviously is figurative and not literal, language.

Three,
Most important: The writer not only ignores, but flatly refuses to recognise the prophetic figure for the "three days" and "third day according to the Scriptures" OF THE PASSOVER in Exodus and the rest of the Pentateuch as the specific, "ESSENTIAL, SUBSTANTIAL, BONE-DAY" of the last Suffering-Passover of Yahweh in Jesus Christ the Passover Lamb of God.

Four,
The writer tries to explain the “three days and three nights” in ISOLATION while not taking into account the COMPLETE bulk of Scriptures that follow Jesus’ Last Passover precisely his whole Last Week and whole journey in Passover-Suffering "three days and three nights" long: 1) step by step; 2) day by day and 3) HOUR BY HOUR.


So, HERE ARE THE RELEVANT SCRIPTURES

1A) HERE BEGINS the NIGHT and the FIRST of the “three days”, “according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
wherein Jesus ENTERED IN in “the Kingdom of my Father” (Jesus’ Jonah’s descent to hell) :–
Mk14:12/17; Mt26:17/20; Lk22:7/14; Jn13:1.

1B) HERE BEGINS the MORNING of the FIRST of the “three days”, “according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
in which Jesus was delivered and crucified :–
Mk15:1/Mt27:1/Lk23:1/Jn19:14

1C) HERE is the LATE NOON AND MID–AFTERNOON of the FIRST of the “three days”, “according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
when Jesus DIED and was deserted by all :–
Mk15:37–41; Mk27:50–56; Lk23:44–49; Jn19:28–30


2A) HERE BEGINS the SECOND of the “three days”, “according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
the day whereon Joseph WOULD BURY the body of Jesus :–
Mk15:42/Mt27:57, Lk23:50–51, Jn19:31/38.
“The Feast of Unleavened Bread” Exodus 12:15b
= “The Preparation …
= “… which is the Fore-Sabbath …
= “… for THAT DAY WAS great day sabbath” of passover.
= FRIDAY!
= Abib 15, Thursday night and Friday day = Sixth Day ....


2B) HERE is the NIGHT of the SECOND of the “three days”, “according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
wherein Joseph begged the body, and according to the law of the Jews – the passover’s law – undertook and prepared to bury Jesus:–
“the first night” unleavened bread was eaten John 19:39
Mk15:43–46a; Mt27:58–59; Lk23:52–53a; Jn19:31b–40

2C) HERE is the LATE NOON AND MID–AFTERNOON of the SECOND of the “three days”, “according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
when Joseph and Nicodemus had laid the body and had closed the tomb; and men and women left for home :–
Mk15:46b–47; Mk27:60–61; Lk23:53b–56a; JN19:41–42


3A) HERE BEGINS the THIRD of the “three days”, “according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
THAT JESUS WOULD RISE FROM THE DEAD ON :–
Lk23:56b
“The day after the sabbath” OF THE PASSOVER Leviticus 23:11,15
= Abib 16, Friday night and Saturday day = Seventh Day Sabbath....

3B) HERE is the MORNING of the THIRD of the “three days”, “according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
Pilate ordered a guard “for the third day” :–
Mt27:62–66

3C) HERE is “IN the Sabbath’s Fullness MID–AFTERNOON” of the THIRD of the “three days”, “according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
First Sheaf Wave Offering Before the LORD :–
Mt28:1–4.
__________________________________________________ ___

Abib 17, Saturday night and Sunday day = First Day ....

4A) HERE begins the day AFTER the “three days” (fourth day of the passover season) :–
that Jesus WOULD APPEAR on :–
Mk16:1, “When the Sabbath was past ..... they BOUGHT ....”

4B) HERE is the EVENING of this day,
Jn20:1–10 Mary sees the DOOR STONE was away from the tomb (discovers tomb has been OPENED);

4C) HERE is the NIGHT of this day,
Lk24:1–10 “DEEP(EST) DARKNESS” ––– “women with their spices” and ointments go to salve the body; “they found Him NOT” (discover tomb is EMPTY);
Mk16:2–8 “very early (before) SUN’S RISING” ––– women’s return–visit to ascertain; “they fled terrified and told NNE”.

4D) Here is sunrise (‘Sunday’ morning),
Jn20:11f, Mk16:9 “Mary had had stood behind” .... saw the gardener (sunrise); “Risen, early (sunrise) on the First Day, Jesus first APPEARED to Mary ....”
Mt28:5–10 “The angel explained to the (other) women (Mt28:1–4) .... As they went to tell .... Jesus met them” (after sunrise).
Mt28:11–15 Guard to high priests.

The Gospels in clear and completely unambiguous chronological sequence follow every of the "three days" from beginning until ending of Jesus' Last Passover-SUFFERING.

Christ's Last Passover-SUFFERING sets the path and the pace for the Old Testament passover to follow in, at, and after.

The OT Passover of Yahweh and Jesus' Passover of Yahweh-SUFFERING must and will be seen to correlate and synchronize and agree PERFECTLY.

 

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

It is the most obvious thing in the Scriptures, the Prophets and Law of the PASSOVER, typified Christ in his Last Suffering.

I have not encountered any acknowledgement of or attention paid to this GRAND FACT concerning the Gospel of Jesus Christ in my forty years of debating the many 'issues' attached to Jesus' Last Passover-Suffering --- no, not once!

 

[Gerhard Ebersoehn]

OT doesn't match exactly with Crucifixion and Resurrection.

As for Luke, we have to examine the translation of < Third> because it can mean < after 3 days>.

Do you think Jesus was in the earth for 3 nights and 3 days if He was killed on Friday and resurrected early in the morning of Sunday?

Friday Night, Saturday Night. Then only 2 nights
Friday Day for 30 minutes and Saturday Day time : Is it 2 days or 1 and 1/12 day? Is it 3 days ?

Is this calculation applied to Jonas in the big fish?


Again, none of the years around 31-32 AD had the Passover on Friday.


Eliyahu

<<<OT doesn't match exactly with Crucifixion and Resurrection.>>>

A Priori Absolute NONSENSE!

<<<As for Luke, we have to examine the translation of < Third> because it can mean < after 3 days>.>>>

A Priori Absolute NONSENSE!

<<<Jesus was in the earth>>>

A Priori Absolute NONSENSE!

<<<3 nights and 3 days if He was killed on Friday and resurrected early in the morning of Sunday?>>>

Correct, it is a priori absolute NONSENSE!

<<<Friday Night, Saturday Night. Then only 2 nights>>>

Correct; it is a priori absolute NONSENSE!

<<<Friday Day for 30 minutes and Saturday Day time : Is it 2 days or 1 and 1/12 day? Is it 3 days ?>>>

Correct; it is not; it is a priori absolute NONSENSE!

<<<Is this calculation applied to Jonas in the big fish?>>>

Nonsensical ‘question’.

<<<Again, none of the years around 31-32 AD had the Passover on Friday.>>>

Irrelevant nonsensical observation.

 

[vooks]

It is the most obvious thing in the Scriptures, the Prophets and Law of the PASSOVER, typified Christ in his Last Suffering.

I have not encountered any acknowledgement of or attention paid to this GRAND FACT concerning the Gospel of Jesus Christ in my forty years of debating the many 'issues' attached to Jesus' Last Passover-Suffering --- no, not once!

I have never encountered such grand obtuseness in all my life