I think it needful to address a couple points that was made in the closed thread, "what time is it" by Stephen Green. There is error that needs to be corrected.
Warning, this is not a sound bite. If you do not like longer posts than you should dismiss yourself now.
We have been programmed by a satanic philosophy that has given us scores of bible translations, the words of which no one seems to believe. We have been led to accept that the choice of words and their meanings in a text is of no consequence and bible translators have the liberty granted by God to present his testimony to the world in their own words and in as many translations, paraphrases and abbreviations as seems right to them. This has caused men to ignore the words of a text rather than to allow them to be taught and instructed from them. Your comment illustrates this.
Here is the prophecy I quoted.
Jer 3:17 At that time they shall call Jerusalem the throne of the LORD; and all the nations shall be gathered unto it, to the name of the LORD, to Jerusalem: neither shall they walk any more after the imagination of their evil heart.
18 In those days the house of Judah shall walk with the house of Israel, and they shall come together out of the land of the north to the land that I have given for an inheritance unto your fathers.
At that time and in those days, what? You will return from Babylon? That is not what is said but that is how you read it. What is actually said?
1) "They" shall call Jerusalem the throne of the LORD.
2) All nations shall be gathered unto Jerusalem
3) They shall no longer walk after the imagination of their own heart.
In those days of that time, what else?
4) The house of Judah will walk with the house of Israel
5) They shall come together out of the land of the north.
6) They will come to the land that God gave for an inheritance to their fathers, which would be Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.
The house of Israel was dispersed from her land in 722 BC by Assyria and has not returned at this present date. Jeremiah preached this sermon somewhere around 600 BC. Judah was taken captive to Babylon in 588 BC and Babylon was not mentioned by Jeremiah until chapter 20.
Therefore, seeing that none of those 6 things has ever happened in the world, and did not happen when Judah was allowed to return to her land after their exile, then it is reasonable and logical to conclude that your statement concerning this passage is in error, and it actually is a messianic promise to God's elect people, Israel and that it's fulfillment is yet future.
De 18:22 When a prophet speaketh in the name of the LORD, if the thing follow not, nor come to pass, that [is] the thing which the LORD hath not spoken, [but] the prophet hath spoken it presumptuously: thou shalt not be afraid of him.
Jer 28:9 The prophet which prophesieth of peace, when the word of the prophet shall come to pass, [then] shall the prophet be known, that the LORD hath truly sent him.
Eze 33:33 And when this cometh to pass, (lo, it will come,) then shall they know that a prophet hath been among them.
My motto is "Believe the Words."
Warning, this is not a sound bite. If you do not like longer posts than you should dismiss yourself now.
Hello again JD!
I will be brief again, forgive me!
Jeremiah’s prophecy refers to the return after the exile, so that was fulfilled long ago. Pre-messianic prophecy.
Micah on the other hand is a Messianic prophecy, and the mountain and Jerusalem he speaks of is the same which Paul speaks of in Hebrews 12 and Galatians 4. It is a spiritual Jerusalem, the same which descends at the end of Revelation.
I suppose it is worth mentioning, I was born Jewish, I grew up reading the Bible in Hebrew. Daniel was not a part of our Bible. But Daniel changes everything, it puts a clear timeline for when Messiah comes and accomplishes all things. It is very difficult for me to accept all these things you’re saying, because if so many of the Messianic Prophecies of the Old Testament are yet to be fulfilled, then Jesus could not have possibly been Messiah. The Prophecies demand immediate fulfillment within the generation of his first coming. I do not see how any other meaning can be taken from prophecy, it just seems to plain, especially in Daniel.
Jesus is of course the Messiah. I am simply flummoxed by all these contradictory claims that he did not fulfill Messianic expectation in the 1st century. If he hadn’t, Jews wouldn’t have followed him.
look forward to talking more!
We have been programmed by a satanic philosophy that has given us scores of bible translations, the words of which no one seems to believe. We have been led to accept that the choice of words and their meanings in a text is of no consequence and bible translators have the liberty granted by God to present his testimony to the world in their own words and in as many translations, paraphrases and abbreviations as seems right to them. This has caused men to ignore the words of a text rather than to allow them to be taught and instructed from them. Your comment illustrates this.
Jeremiah’s prophecy refers to the return after the exile, so that was fulfilled long ago. Pre-messianic prophecy.
Here is the prophecy I quoted.
Jer 3:17 At that time they shall call Jerusalem the throne of the LORD; and all the nations shall be gathered unto it, to the name of the LORD, to Jerusalem: neither shall they walk any more after the imagination of their evil heart.
18 In those days the house of Judah shall walk with the house of Israel, and they shall come together out of the land of the north to the land that I have given for an inheritance unto your fathers.
At that time and in those days, what? You will return from Babylon? That is not what is said but that is how you read it. What is actually said?
1) "They" shall call Jerusalem the throne of the LORD.
2) All nations shall be gathered unto Jerusalem
3) They shall no longer walk after the imagination of their own heart.
In those days of that time, what else?
4) The house of Judah will walk with the house of Israel
5) They shall come together out of the land of the north.
6) They will come to the land that God gave for an inheritance to their fathers, which would be Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.
The house of Israel was dispersed from her land in 722 BC by Assyria and has not returned at this present date. Jeremiah preached this sermon somewhere around 600 BC. Judah was taken captive to Babylon in 588 BC and Babylon was not mentioned by Jeremiah until chapter 20.
Therefore, seeing that none of those 6 things has ever happened in the world, and did not happen when Judah was allowed to return to her land after their exile, then it is reasonable and logical to conclude that your statement concerning this passage is in error, and it actually is a messianic promise to God's elect people, Israel and that it's fulfillment is yet future.
De 18:22 When a prophet speaketh in the name of the LORD, if the thing follow not, nor come to pass, that [is] the thing which the LORD hath not spoken, [but] the prophet hath spoken it presumptuously: thou shalt not be afraid of him.
Jer 28:9 The prophet which prophesieth of peace, when the word of the prophet shall come to pass, [then] shall the prophet be known, that the LORD hath truly sent him.
Eze 33:33 And when this cometh to pass, (lo, it will come,) then shall they know that a prophet hath been among them.
My motto is "Believe the Words."