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Walpole

Well-Known Member
The concept of Scripture being the sole basis for belief is repeated as a motif throughout the New Testament. You have to be obstinate to miss it.

Septuagint argument is lame. It has been refuted elsewhere. The Jews at the time, including Timothy, did not consider the second temple writings to be scripture. They were beneficial to read but of lesser importance. Regardless, I rarely see Catholics quoting the missing books of the Septuagint. You always seem to have to quote people far after the Septuagint.

If quoting the books missing from in the Protestant Bible helps your case, I would be glad to hear about it. After all, the NLT does have a Catholic Edition translated by evangelicals.


If sola Scriptura is repeated throughout the New Testament, post one single verse stating it.

As for the Septuagint, it is the version of Scripture Timothy would have known and studied from his young. He was Greek.
 

MartyF

Well-Known Member
This poses another problem for Protestants. What Scriptures would the Bereans have found that confirmed what St. Paul was telling them - that a man named Jesus, who had died and rose from the dead and is the Christ - was true? Please be specific.

Things to consider when answering...

- The Bereans were Greek-speaking Jews

- St. Paul was telling them that Christ suffered, died and rose again (Acts 17:3)

- What prophesy in the Old Testament matches this, stating a man who claims to be the actual Son of God would suffer, be put to death and in the end be triumphant?

- What verse from Scripture do the Jewish rulers quote to Jesus at the foot of the cross?


Hint: It's not in the Protestant Bible

You haven't read the book of Matthew?

It's obviously there, but I have to go to work and this thread will close before I can get back.
 

Particular

Well-Known Member
Don't be ridiculous. No present in the Holy Eucharist, the teaching that was passed down from the beginning. We have it and you don't. Sad for you, a joy to us!
No eucharist/sacrament was passed down from the beginning, because no Apostle taught that such a ceremony imparted divine grace upon the practitioners of the ceremony.
In reality, your ceremonies are legalistic, works based, ceremonies that deny God acts graciously based upon no meritorious actions of the recipients. You teach what is anathema to gospel. You teach salvation by works. Read Galatians to see your churches error.
 

Particular

Well-Known Member
The Bishop's known as the Early Church Fathers disagree with you, so I will go with them on this one.
You mean the State Controlled Church of Rome disagrees with me. The early church leaders have no idea what you are talking about.
 

Particular

Well-Known Member
And, as I told you before - the Pope was called "Pontifex Maximus" - LONG before Christianity was ever made legal in the Roman Empire - while the Church was STILL being persecuted showing that this was not a title bestowed by Rome - but by fellow Christians.

STUDY your history . . .
Nope. The bishop took that title, given to the emperor, after the State take over of the church. Power politics 101 as the Church of Rome has done for 1700 years now.
 

utilyan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Acts 17:10-12 NLT
That very night the believers sent Paul and Silas to Berea. When they arrived there, they went to the Jewish synagogue. [11] And the people of Berea were more open-minded than those in Thessalonica, and they listened eagerly to Paul’s message. They searched the Scriptures day after day to see if Paul and Silas were teaching the truth. [12] As a result, many Jews believed, as did many of the prominent Greek women and men.

This one might be slipping past you.....can you confirm what we are trying to explain to you?

Ever seen the movie Space Balls?

228b1104311c16cf0613db807b055804.jpg
 

Walpole

Well-Known Member
I posted some - you ignored them. And it's obvious English is difficult for you. Try looking up the word - motif.

You posted random Scriptures, none of which mention sola Scriptura.

Do you know what sola Scriptura means?


"Sola Scriptura" = only Scripture

(Source: Latin Dictionary and Grammar Aid)



Only: without others or anything further; alone; solely; exclusively

(Source: Definition of only | Dictionary.com)



Scripture: the sacred writings of the Old or New Testaments or both together

(Source: Definition of scripture | Dictionary.com)
 

utilyan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
No eucharist/sacrament was passed down from the beginning, because no Apostle taught that such a ceremony imparted divine grace upon the practitioners of the ceremony.
In reality, your ceremonies are legalistic, works based, ceremonies that deny God acts graciously based upon no meritorious actions of the recipients. You teach what is anathema to gospel. You teach salvation by works. Read Galatians to see your churches error.

The reason we do the Eucharist is the SAME MOTIVE AND REASON found in scripture. You might do it ONLY cause its found in scripture.


1 Corinthians 11

23For I received from the Lord that which I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus in the night in which He was betrayed took bread;

We have followed the on going command of "DO THIS" Because of "DO THIS". not because someone wrote it down. IF we did in for different reason like it being written down.....it is now DO THAT not DO THIS.

"You teach salvation by works"

Here is a very common theme. I can have you give a list of your beliefs tell me what you believe. And I can respect this to be true. I don't have to paint it black, or evil. I don't have to misrepresent or lie about your beliefs.

I can have you sign off on it, when you agree that is genuinely what you believe. And still find something HORRIBLY WRONG WITH IT.

You can't do that with a catholic. The only way you will win is to vilify, misrepresent and LIE about what a catholic believes.

Its like a NAZI insisting to know what JEWS actually believe.
 

Walpole

Well-Known Member
It's obvious you haven't read Matthew. Give it a gander.

Just so I'm clear, your argument is the Bereans would have pulled out their copy of St. Matthew's Gospel to confirm what St. Paul was telling them about Christ was true?

I'm trying to take you seriously here...
 

MarysSon

Active Member
Nope. The bishop took that title, given to the emperor, after the State take over of the church. Power politics 101 as the Church of Rome has done for 1700 years now.
WRONG.

From the THIRD Century – Tertullian’s Di Pudicitia:

I hear that there has even been an edict set forth, and a peremptory one too. The Pontifex Maximus -that is, the bishop of bishops -issues an edict: "I remit, to such as have discharged (the requirements of) repentance, the sins both of adultery and of fornication."

STUDY your history . . .
 

Particular

Well-Known Member
WRONG.

From the THIRD Century – Tertullian’s Di Pudicitia:

I hear that there has even been an edict set forth, and a peremptory one too. The Pontifex Maximus -that is, the bishop of bishops -issues an edict: "I remit, to such as have discharged (the requirements of) repentance, the sins both of adultery and of fornication."

STUDY your history . . .

Show your sources. Your church is guilty of revisionist history.
 

utilyan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Show your sources. Your church is guilty of revisionist history.

You might as well accuse them of revisionist of scripture while your at it and show us your source of genuine scripture without touching catholic hands.
 
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