I've heard it been said several times that when Jesus shed His blood as a ransom for our sins, this ransom was paid to God the Father.
Now, I know that often times earthly comparisons sometimes fail when trying to prove theological points (and this may be the case here), but let's use the most common scenario where a ransom is often mentioned: A kidnapping.
A person is kidnapped. A ransom note is received demanding X amount of money by the captors. The recipients of this ransom note would be expected to pay the ransom to the captors, right?
Before we were saved, is it not true that we were held captive by Satan?
Logic would conseqently infer, then, that the ransom payment would be paid to the Prince of This World, right?
I'm a little fuzzy, then, on why I hear that the ransom Christ gave for us was paid to the Father, since He was not our captor, but Satan.
Please explain why our ransom was paid to the Father.
[NOTE: I'm not dogmatic about this issue, just curious.]
Now, I know that often times earthly comparisons sometimes fail when trying to prove theological points (and this may be the case here), but let's use the most common scenario where a ransom is often mentioned: A kidnapping.
A person is kidnapped. A ransom note is received demanding X amount of money by the captors. The recipients of this ransom note would be expected to pay the ransom to the captors, right?
Before we were saved, is it not true that we were held captive by Satan?
Logic would conseqently infer, then, that the ransom payment would be paid to the Prince of This World, right?
I'm a little fuzzy, then, on why I hear that the ransom Christ gave for us was paid to the Father, since He was not our captor, but Satan.
Please explain why our ransom was paid to the Father.
[NOTE: I'm not dogmatic about this issue, just curious.]