Bible-belted
New Member
Brian,
I'm sorry but you have not supported your assertion that Paul is referring to unbeliving Israel in 1Corintians 14. As such I cannot accept your interpretation. You have repeated your assertion but not supported it.
Again, there is NOTHING in the context of the passage in question that leads one to expect such a narrowing of view. That the Isaiah p[assage is a refernce to Israel is not in dispute, but it is also not relevant. Paul is referrring to Isaaih by way of illustration, precedent, not propehsy.
And you also have to contend with the fact that if you are right, then Paul is wrong, for the imperfect will not have gone when perfection came, but when destruction came. This perfection is the ONLY temporal marker in context.
I am sory but your view rests insufficiently on context and too much on assumptions read into the text to be acceptable.
I'm sorry but you have not supported your assertion that Paul is referring to unbeliving Israel in 1Corintians 14. As such I cannot accept your interpretation. You have repeated your assertion but not supported it.
Again, there is NOTHING in the context of the passage in question that leads one to expect such a narrowing of view. That the Isaiah p[assage is a refernce to Israel is not in dispute, but it is also not relevant. Paul is referrring to Isaaih by way of illustration, precedent, not propehsy.
And you also have to contend with the fact that if you are right, then Paul is wrong, for the imperfect will not have gone when perfection came, but when destruction came. This perfection is the ONLY temporal marker in context.
I am sory but your view rests insufficiently on context and too much on assumptions read into the text to be acceptable.