Translation problem Gal. 2:21 (KJV)

[Salamander]

I'm interested in reasoning from the biblical text. What does the Greek or Hebrew say? How best to translate the text in question?

But if this is not posible or made difficult because of an apriori position, then we're only spinning top in mud.

I offered it, will you receive it?

 

[GodsRealTruth]

God's Word is Infallible

God's Word is error free. There are no translation errors in God's Word. :BangHead: I wish we would get that through our heads. :BangHead: People are the ones with errors not God's Word.

Have we become so prideful and arrogant that we thinkwe can correct the Word of God?

I pray we have not.

raying: :jesus:

 

[StefanM]

God's Word is error free. There are no translation errors in God's Word. :BangHead: I wish we would get that through our heads. :BangHead: People are the ones with errors not God's Word.

Have we become so prideful and arrogant that we thinkwe can correct the Word of God?

I pray we have not.

raying: :jesus:

It is error free. There are no translation errors in God's word because God's word was inspired in Greek and Hebrew. Inspiration in translation derives from the originals, and if there is an error in translation, it does not follow that there is an error in God's word.

We cannot correct the Word of God, but we can correct a translation.

Besides, the KJV "corrected" earlier Bibles with this translation.

 

[TCGreek]

I offered it, will you receive it?

It seems that I've offered a rebuttal in post 66.

Are you willing to tackle that post within the framework of Galatians from a grammatical standpoint?

 

[Salamander]

It is error free. There are no translation errors in God's word because God's word was inspired in Greek and Hebrew. Inspiration in translation derives from the originals, and if there is an error in translation, it does not follow that there is an error in God's word.

We cannot correct the Word of God, but we can correct a translation.

Besides, the KJV "corrected" earlier Bibles with this translation.

I have to ask, since one MUST translate Hebrew and Greek into their receptor tongue, how is it even possible your statements above can be true?

This is an old axiom that is probably the most ludicrous arguements about translations ever spouted out.

 

[Salamander]

1. Well, I decided to consider another aorist with Christ as a doer of the action behind the verb, to get to the heart of this matter.

Here's what I came up with:

Χριστὸς ἡμᾶς ἐξηγόρασεν--"Christ redeemed us..." (3:13).

The KJV has "Christ hath redeemed us..." Here the KJV translators treated the aorist as a simple past.

2. The only problem here is that we are not dealing with a conditional sentence as in 2:21.

3. But I found a similar text at 2:18: "For if I build again the things which I destroyed, I make myself a transgressor."

4. Both 2:21 and 2:18 have the same type of conditional sentences in the Greek, with the only difference being the verb tenses in the apodosis, the then clause.

5. In 2:21 the verb is aorist, but in 2:18 the verb is present.

6. But despite the differences in the verb tenses in the apodosis in the same type of conditional sentences, the KJV treated the verb tenses as the same.

You said "similar". I have shown the definition of each word used. One fits the doctrinalition while the other doesn't even make theological sense.

Can you abrogate the grace of God? I can frustrate it in my life which can also frustrate it in others' lives, but no one can abrogate the grace of God!:godisgood:

 

[StefanM]

I have to ask, since one MUST translate Hebrew and Greek into their receptor tongue, how is it even possible your statements above can be true?

This is an old axiom that is probably the most ludicrous arguements about translations ever spouted out.

Only the Greek and Hebrew can be free from translation errors.

IMO, no translation is perfect, and, as such, no translation can be the "perfect" word of God in the same sense as the autographs.

Translations reflect derived inspiration insofar as they reflect the underlying texts.

When I say the Bible is the word of God, I primarily mean that the autographs are inspired and inerrant. In a secondary sense, I mean that the translations of the extant texts are inspired in a derivative sense.