I appreciate your response and sincerity. No, I do not want to get deeply involved with many of the verses that you are now raising. In an older Post you seem to be alluding to Psalm 110:1.
Psalm 110:1 (KJV): The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
I would be interested to hear your explanation of this verse. Who is The LORD (Yahweh), who is my Lord, and when did Yahweh actually invite David’s Lord to sit at his right hand? Did the throne of God in heaven have God the Father seated, with Jesus at his right hand when David spoke Psalm 110:1?
Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David. He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? If David then call him Lord, how is he his son? - Mt. 22:42-45
Jesus asked them whose Son is Christ? They responded he is the "Son of David. Jesus made his position known by quoting Psalm 110:1. His point is obvious. How can the Christ be merely and only David's son ("the fruit of his loins") when David addressed the Christ as His "Lord" when he was alive. If you cannot see this you cannot see period! Jesus is demanding that Christ preceded the virgin birth and was recognized by David as His Lord. Jesus is making a clear distinction between Christ as the "son of David" through geneological human reproduction and the preincarnate Son of God. This is why the Pharisees could not answer and it is why you cannot answer this text but must pervert and distort and deny the very point that Jesus is making. Christ was recognized by David as His Lord 1000 years prior to the incarnation and thus Christ is not merely human or the "son OF DAVID" but is in addition the eternal "Son OF GOD" BEFORE the incarnation.
Like the JW's you want to deflect the real point Jesus is making because it exposes you as a heretic. You want to talk about terms, time and things rather than accept the obvious point Jesus made because like the Pharisees you are an unbeliever in the Jesus of the Bible.
However, I will entertain your unbelief. The lower case term "Lord" translates the Hebrew "adonai" which is the term used by the Jews whenever they spoke the upper case "LORD" (Yahweh). It means the same as "Master." David recognized he had a spiritual MASTER in heaven in addition to Yahweh who shared the throne of Yahweh. For any Jew to recognize someone higher than an earthly king, someone in heaven as "Adonai" other than Yahweh was considered blasphemous. However, Jesus shut their mouth by this simple text which demanded the Christ was more than the FUTURE "fruit of the loins of David" but the PRESENT Master of King David before "the fruit of his loins" was ever born.
David was the highest ranking human on earth = King = and yet he recognized a Person IN HEAVEN besides "Yahew" as His "Lord" or Master. The Christ is not merely human "son of David" but the Master of David in heaven the Son of God. Jesus is demanding that Psalm 110:1 has a DUAL application and not just a prophetic future application as the Pharisees, JW's and you restrict it to. Jesus is demanding it has a PRESENT application to David as His "Master" and a future applicaton as "the son of his loins."
The point Jesus is making is the very point you are denying! Jesus is claiming that David recognized Christ as His "Master" during the life time of David 1000 years before Jesus was incarnated. You deny that very point. Instead, like the JW's you want to talk about only the prophetic aspect of this verse in its future fulfillment when Jesus quoted it for the very pupose to demand its PAST application to the person of David in His relationship with God. Even the Pharisees got this point but JW's and you are blind to it. They were wise enough to keep their mouth shut but not so with the JW's and you! Both of you blatantly make Christ a liar.
In Acts chapter 2 Peter confirms that David had a continuing relationship with Christ as His Lord throughout his own life
in addition to HIs prophetic forecast of Christ in the future as the son of his loins:
For David speaketh concerning him, I foresaw the Lord always before my face, for he is on my right hand, that I should not be moved:
What he "foresaw" was the prophetic fulfillment of the death and resurrection of Christ by faith as Peter later says "TO HIM all the prohets gave witness that whosever believeth in his name shall have remission of sins" (Acts 10:43)and David was a prophet:
[
B]Therefore being a prophet[/B], and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne; He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption. - Acts 2:30-31
No question he foresaw this as "the fruit of his loins" or the prophetic "son of David"
but Christ demands this prophetic utterance of David had another application as David's "Lord" and not merely the prophetic "son of David" and so does Peter by the words "
always before my face, for he IS on my right hand, that I should not be moved" and that is the point you are denying. You are denying that David in His own life time had a personal relationship with Christ as His "Lord" so that David believed that he was "
always before my face, for he is on my right hand, that I should not be moved" or as David says in Psalm 73:
23 Nevertheless I am continually with thee: thou hast holden me by my right hand.
24 Thou shalt guide me with thy counsel, and afterward receive me to glory.
25 Whom have I in heaven but thee? and there is none upon earth that I desire beside thee.
This present relationship between David and his "Lord" is the point Jesus is demanding when he quoted Psalm 110:1 which shut the mouths of the Pharisees who believed just like you do that he is merely "the son of David" and a mere man. Only a transforming work of Grace will change your mind. Your view of Christ is the Phariseeical view rather than the view of Jesus. Isaiah recognized Christ as the "great God" and "Mighty God" more than a mere predicted virgin born human being (Isa. 7:14; 9:6) and the Holy Spirit called him at the incarnation literally "The God with us" (Mt. 1:23) and Thomas was not taking God's name in vain when he addressed Jesus and called him "My Lord and My God" and Jesus commended him for finally believing who He really was rather than a mere man.
I do not believe the Trinity.
No, your problem is much deeper. You do not believe the Word of God, you do not believe in the Jesus Christ of the Bible. You worship "another Jesus" and preach "another gospel" and follow "another spirit."
A Trinitarian in reality believes that Jesus is God the Son, and not the Scriptural “The Son of God”. I believe there is One God the Father and The Lord Jesus Christ is The Son of God.
I am the son of a human father, does that deny I am the human Father's son and share the same nature as my father? The difference is that I am materialistic in nature but God is spirit in nature. My Father and I are of two different material substances but God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit share the same spiritual substance that makes God to be God. If as the Bible clearly teaches that "elohim" (plural - three or more) is "one LORD" just as "time" singular is a trinity, and "space" singular is a trinity and "matter" singular is a trinity, how would Biblical writers communicate there is but "one" God who is Trinitarian in nature? Plural pronouns with singular verbs? Plural nouns with singular verbs? Synonyms for God (elohim, Yahweh, Adonai) applied to different divine Persons in the same sentence or context? Singular nouns modified by three different designations("the name..of the Father AND OF the Son AND OF the Holy Ghost"). Trinitarian ripitition of adjectives ("holy, holy, holy")? Applying attributes that make God to be God separate from all creatures (omniscience, omnipotence, omnipresence, immutability, eternity, etc.)??