Michael Edwards
New Member
Hello:
I know that this topic has been visited previously on this forum, but I'd like to pose a couple of questions that I personally am studying on this issue, to the forum:
1. One consistent argument on the pre-trib rapture side is that in Matthew 24, Jesus is speaking on "Jewish" terms, so that the gathering together of the elect, does not refer to the "elect" of the church age, but to the elect at the time of Christ's return at the end of the Great Tribulation. Then, John 14:1-2 is used as a rapture text. My question is, what is less Jewish about John 14, seeing as how he is speaking to the same people, his disciples. What in these two texts, is to lead someone to distinguish Israel and the Church as it relates to the rapture?
2. In II Thess. 2, Paul begins by talking about the Day of the Lord and our gathering together unto him. The gathering seems to clearly be speaking of the rapture. In addition, Paul mentions the "Day of the Lord." If I'm not mistaken, the general pre-trib position is that the "Day of the Lord" refers to the entire period of the Great Tribulation, not just one particular day. So in answering the concerns of the Thessalonian believers at the time, Paul is addressing the fact that they seem to be getting informed that the "Day of the Lord" and the "gathering" had already taken place. Paul then goes on to say that these things (including the gathering) don't take place until AFTER the falling away (apostasy) and the man of sin is revealed (antichrist). From a plain reading of the text, for myself, Paul seems to be telling them: of course you haven't missed it yet, the apostasy of the man of sin setting himself up in the temple hasn't even taken place. If the pre-trib rapture was in view there in Paul's mind, wouldn't he simply say, "of course you haven't missed the Day of the Lord beginning and the rapture, you're still HERE! and you haven't seen others resurrected and disappearing have you?"
If anyone could utilize some Biblical exegesis to help me with this issue, I'd appreciate it greatly. For, I have seen great confusion over this doctrine. Some pre-trib supporters use things like "one taken and one left" from Matthew 24, but out the other side of the mouth and argument is that Matt 24 is Jewish and doesn't refer to the rapture. So, many supporters of the pre-trib I don't think have defended the position on solid biblical exegesis. I'd like to see some of that in regards to the two points I mentioned. It would be a tremendous encouragement for me.
Thanks!
Michael
I know that this topic has been visited previously on this forum, but I'd like to pose a couple of questions that I personally am studying on this issue, to the forum:
1. One consistent argument on the pre-trib rapture side is that in Matthew 24, Jesus is speaking on "Jewish" terms, so that the gathering together of the elect, does not refer to the "elect" of the church age, but to the elect at the time of Christ's return at the end of the Great Tribulation. Then, John 14:1-2 is used as a rapture text. My question is, what is less Jewish about John 14, seeing as how he is speaking to the same people, his disciples. What in these two texts, is to lead someone to distinguish Israel and the Church as it relates to the rapture?
2. In II Thess. 2, Paul begins by talking about the Day of the Lord and our gathering together unto him. The gathering seems to clearly be speaking of the rapture. In addition, Paul mentions the "Day of the Lord." If I'm not mistaken, the general pre-trib position is that the "Day of the Lord" refers to the entire period of the Great Tribulation, not just one particular day. So in answering the concerns of the Thessalonian believers at the time, Paul is addressing the fact that they seem to be getting informed that the "Day of the Lord" and the "gathering" had already taken place. Paul then goes on to say that these things (including the gathering) don't take place until AFTER the falling away (apostasy) and the man of sin is revealed (antichrist). From a plain reading of the text, for myself, Paul seems to be telling them: of course you haven't missed it yet, the apostasy of the man of sin setting himself up in the temple hasn't even taken place. If the pre-trib rapture was in view there in Paul's mind, wouldn't he simply say, "of course you haven't missed the Day of the Lord beginning and the rapture, you're still HERE! and you haven't seen others resurrected and disappearing have you?"
If anyone could utilize some Biblical exegesis to help me with this issue, I'd appreciate it greatly. For, I have seen great confusion over this doctrine. Some pre-trib supporters use things like "one taken and one left" from Matthew 24, but out the other side of the mouth and argument is that Matt 24 is Jewish and doesn't refer to the rapture. So, many supporters of the pre-trib I don't think have defended the position on solid biblical exegesis. I'd like to see some of that in regards to the two points I mentioned. It would be a tremendous encouragement for me.
Thanks!
Michael