Use of the NKJV?

Your quote is not correct. My NKJV uses the same manuscripts as the KJV. So using your thinking, you have no problem with the NKJV, right? It has the same Scriptures that you are quoting to support KJVO and it is based on the same manuscripts, not the 'corrupt' ones that you are so afraid of.

Neal

P.S. You should be careful about coming down so hard on the names and locations of other manuscripts. The TR was put together by a Catholic (humanist) cleric and the TR has readings directly from the Latin Vulgate, the official Bible of the Catholic church for a very long time.

 

MV-Neverist writes:
>>I already did earlier!! look below

No, I saw what you wrote.

I will repeat my question once again:
Prove to me with scripture that a KJV Only stance is Scriptural. I will say it a different way: provide us with Scripture that KJV ONLYISM is sound Biblical doctrine.

You have the floor.

 

BTW if I handed you a sandwich and you found out that the bread was pure but the meat in between was corrupt, would you eat the sandwich and what would you think of me?

Just because the apocrypha/deuterocanonicals are not inspired in no way makes the corrupt. As it is, how do we know they were not inspired?

 

Aye Carumba!

 

JYD writes:
>>Aye Carumba!

Hey, JYD.
Would you care to take a stab at my question?

 

There is nothing to read or study here. The verse n Ecc says nothing about translation of Bibles. It has absolutely no place in this discussion. To use it here to make a mockery out of what Scripture says.

 

Now now,lets not bait folks I looked over the posts and I think you have got your answer..The ball is in your court.

 

Would you please point out the answer?

Neal

 

Japheth writes:
>>Now now,lets not bait folks I looked over the
>>posts and I think you have got your answer..The
>>ball is in your court.

Good evening, and welcome to the party.

My question once more:
"Prove to me with Scripture your belief that the only English version of the Word of God is the KJV." In other words: provide us with the evidence that KJV Onlyism is sound Biblical doctrine."

I have kept my promise, and have given anyone who wants to field the question the floor.

 

It can be demonstrated from Scripture alone that KJV-Onlyism (or *any* form of "One-Version-Onlyism") is unscriptural.


EXAMPLE 1 - Note the exact wording of this passage from the Book of Isaiah:

7 he IS BROUGHT as a LAMB to the slaughter,
and AS a SHEEP BEFORE HER SHEARERS IS DUMB,
so HE OPENETH not his mouth.
8 HE WAS TAKEN FROM PRISON AND FROM JUDGMENT:
and who shall declare his generation?
for HE WAS CUT OFF FROM THE LAND OF THE LIVING:
(Isa. 53:7-8, KJV)

Now, note the exact wording of the very same passage as it appeared in the copy of Isaiah from which the Ehtiopian eunuch read on his way back from Jerusalem:

27 And he arose and went: and, behold, a man of Ethiopia, an eunuch of great authority under Candace queen of the Ethiopians, who had the charge of all her treasure, and had come to Jerusalem for to worship, 28 Was returning, and sitting in his chariot READ Esaias the prophet. 29 Then the Spirit said unto Philip, Go near, and join thyself to this chariot. 30 And Philip ran thither to him, and HEARD HIM READ the prophet Esaias, and said, Understandest thou what thou READEST? 31 And he said, How can I, except some man should guide me? And he desired Philip that he would come up and sit with him. 32 THE PLACE OF THE SCRIPTURE WHICH HE READ was this,
He WAS LED as a SHEEP to the slaughter;
and LIKE a LAMB DUMB BEFORE HIS SHEARER,
so OPENED HE not his mouth:
33 IN HIS HUMILIATION HIS JUDGMENT WAS TAKEN AWAY:
and who shall declare his generation?
for HIS LIFE IS TAKEN FROM THE EARTH.
34 And the eunuch answered Philip, and said, I pray thee, of whom speaketh the prophet this? of himself, or of some other man? 35 Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at THE SAME SCRIPTURE, and preached unto him Jesus.
(Ac. 8:27-35, KJV)

The Ethiopian eunuch used a different version of Isaiah, and this fact is clearly recorded in the Scriptures. This demonstrates that any form of "One Version Onlyism" is unscriptural.


EXAMPLE 2 - Note the exact wording of this passage from the Book of Isaiah:

1 The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me;
because the LORD hath anointed me
to preach GOOD TIDINGS UNTO THE MEEK;
he hath sent me to BIND UP the brokenhearted,
to PROCLAIM LIBERTY to the captives,
AND THE OPENING OF THE PRISON TO them that are BOUND;
2 To PROCLAIM the acceptable year of the Lord.
(Isa. 61:1-2, KJV)

Now, note the exact wording of the very same passage as it appeared in the copy of Isaiah from which Jesus read in his hometown synagogue:

16 And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up: and, as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up FOR TO READ. 17 And there was delivered unto him THE BOOK of the prophet Esaias. And when he had OPENED THE BOOK, he found THE PLACE WHERE IT WAS WRITTEN,
18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me,
because HE hath anointed me
to preach THE GOSPEL TO THE POOR;
he hath sent me to HEAL the brokenhearted,
to PREACH DELIVERANCE to the captives,
AND RECOVERING OF SIGHT TO THE BLIND,
TO SET AT LIBERTY them that are BRUISED,
19 To PREACH the acceptable year of the Lord.
20 And he CLOSED THE BOOK, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him. 21 And he began to say unto them, This day is THIS SCRIPTURE fulfilled IN YOUR EARS.
(Lk. 4:16-21, KJV)

Jesus himself used a different version of Isaiah, and this fact is recorded in the Scriptures. So Jesus' own example demonstrates that any form of "One Version Onlyism" is unscriptural.

Therefore, the doctrine of KJV-Onlyism (or any other form of "One Version Onlyism") is shown to be the unscriptural by the testimony of these two Scriptural witnesses (cf. Deut. 19:15, Mt. 18:16).

[ May 17, 2003, 11:10 AM: Message edited by: Archangel7 ]