Originally posted by HomeBound:
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />Originally posted by Joseph_Botwinick:
I would say no. But, neither did it begin or end in 1611. I don't know how you can scripturally make an argument that it did begin and end in 1611.
Joseph Botwinick
I'm saying that it begun in 1611. It begun when God said, "In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth." I believe that if God can create the heaven and earth, he can inspire and preserve his word that all generations can have. My particular generation was preserved in the King James Bible and that is exactly where it ends. </font>[/QUOTE]Let me get this straight, because I sure don't want to take you out of context or misrepresent you. Are you saying that "...God's inspired, infallible, inerrant word..." began and ended in 1611? If so, how do you support this in scripture seeing as the only scripture I know of that Paul had was the Old Testament in Hebrew?
There also seems to be a contradiction in what you said:
" I'm saying that it begun in 1611."
"I believe that if God can create the heaven and earth, he can inspire and preserve his word that all generations can have."
If the inspiration and preservation of God's word began in 1611, how could it then be inspired and preserved for all generations since those before 1611 would not have benefit from said inspiration and preservation?
"My particular generation was preserved in the King James Bible and that is exactly where it ends."
So is the argument that because it was what worked for your generation, that is the reason the KJV is the only inspired and preserved word of God? This seems like a weak, unscriptural argument which is based on experience, which can be different from person to person and be very unreliable in making generalizations. Where does scripture itself say that inspriation and preservation began and ended in 1611?
Joseph Botwinick