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Warning concerning Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon

Olivencia

New Member
1. On page 522 (pneuma) Matthew 28:19, John 14:16-26, 15:26, 16:13-15 are cited in which it reads that "the Holy Spirit is rhetorically represenated as a Person".

In these passages the Holy Spirit is "rhetorically" a Person?

2. Among several passages John 1:1 and John 20:28 are cited where it reads that it is still dipsuted among theologians as to whether or not Christ is called God (theos, page 287).
What kind of "theologian" would dispute that Christ is called "God" in these two passages?
I should point out that on page 366 (kurios) it reads, "after his resurrection Jesus is addressed by the title ho kurios mou kai ho theos mou, John 20:28".
 
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Olivencia

New Member
Thayer does at least give the accurate definition of theotes (Strong's #2320) as used in Colossians 2:9 - "the state of being God" (page 288). Whether he personally believed it seems very doubtful.
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Whatever else Thayer was, he was a competent linguist. His lexicon was the standard for decades even among fundamentalists and other evangelicals until Bauer (BAGD) came out. My Dad used him at Wheaton College in the 1940's and then in his ministry. If you are careful about his bad doctrine, Thayer is useful.
 

EdSutton

New Member
Whatever else Thayer was, he was a competent linguist. His lexicon was the standard for decades even among fundamentalists and other evangelicals until Bauer (BAGD) came out. My Dad used him at Wheaton College in the 1940's and then in his ministry. If you are careful about his bad doctrine, Thayer is useful.
A fair analysis, I'd say.

And considering, as a farmer, I can still see no real good reason to drop a C-note and a half for a 'Bauer', for my infrequent use, I still use 'Thayer', today.

Ed
 
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