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Was It Possible For Jesus To Sin?

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Benjamin

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Six Hour Warning
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Darn, SG running out of time, rabbit trail questions aside, ;)
So why don't you tell me which part of Chalcedon, Nicene, scripture or my definitions above doesn't "jive" and to what? Or perhaps you are in the same presupposition boat on defining "fallen nature" which needs to deny the true full humanity of Jesus Christ ...

...and "Fallen nature" as defined, I was anxiously awaiting SovereignGrace's evidence that Jesus Christ's true full humanity is a myth or otherwise He was born sin-filled? :Whistling

Maybe TC can help him out? :Whistling
 

JonC

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And nary a word of this jives with your notion that the Christ had a fallen human nature.
Ah, but nary a word of Scripture jives with the notion that there is a "fallen" human nature (as opposed to an "un-fallen" one). The assumption is that human nature in its present state constitutes sin itself, but it is not exactly a biblical teaching if you know what I mean. :Wink
 

SovereignGrace

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Ah, but nary a word of Scripture jives with the notion that there is a "fallen" human nature (as opposed to an "un-fallen" one). The assumption is that human nature in its present state constitutes sin itself, but it is not exactly a biblical teaching if you know what I mean. :Wink

Okay, did the first Adam represent the last Adam or vice versa?
 

SovereignGrace

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Ah, but nary a word of Scripture jives with the notion that there is a "fallen" human nature (as opposed to an "un-fallen" one). The assumption is that human nature in its present state constitutes sin itself, but it is not exactly a biblical teaching if you know what I mean. :Wink

As soon as Adam and Eve heard God's voice after rebelling against Him, they left lickety-split. They knew they had sinned and fled. That, imo, constitutes a fallen human nature. Before sin, there was no need of running and hiding, as they were in daily communion with God.
 

Benjamin

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Again, did the first Adam represent the last Adam or vice versa? Its not a rabbit trail, but very salient to the subject at hand.

Your question does not even make logical sense dude, did the “Adam” (humanity) before the fall need representation before he even sinned and was sent back to ground that he came from? Did that Adam need to now put forth his hand and take from the tree of life? Jesus came to save those who were lost, to provide the way, was pre-fallen Adam lost? Your question dodges the subject and is merely an attempt to avoid defining the true human nature of Jesus Christ, as well as a blatant fallacious effort to avoid all the evidence I have given to support the orthodox and scriptural definitions to support that true nature Christ came in, and is indeed a doubly fallacious effort to produce a rabbit trail tactic while trying to reason toward a conclusion that amounts to a heretical view of Jesus Christ nature being a mere illusion of true humanity and sadly discounts the work of Christ to overcome sin in that nature.

I‘ve asked you to refute my (and the orthodox/scriptural) definition of humanity or define yours according to the baseless and unsupported conclusion you need to create about the nature of Christ to be pre-fallen “Adam” (humanity) in order to protect your systematic theology presuppositions, but your only focus is to desperately try to fabricate and come up with a definition of “Adam” that was before even the need of redemption.

Jesus was before Adam (humanity) period. He came through the Holy Spirit in real time in the flesh and blood form of true humanity that needed redemption as the seed of Abraham to fulfill the promise in faith. In faith and perfect obedience to the Father He overcame the death of Adam (humanity) in the true human nature but your conclusion would have Him in a meaningless quest to save some pre-fallen Adam with a nature that had not yet died and was rather now subject to a nature with acquired attributes that could not avoid but to sin and remain lost.

It seems merely another illusion you carry is that you have some kind of gotcha question above…:rolleyes:

You have more problems than I can count with your efforts. To start with…:Rolleyes


…nevermind, if you ain’t got the point yet there is no sense in spending my time repeating myself, I'm going to go wash my Jeep. :Smile
 

SovereignGrace

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Your question does not even make logical sense dude, did the “Adam” (humanity) before the fall need representation before he even sinned and was sent back to ground that he came from? Did that Adam need to now put forth his hand and take from the tree of life? Jesus came to save those who were lost, to provide the way, was pre-fallen Adam lost? Your question dodges the subject and is merely an attempt to avoid defining the true human nature of Jesus Christ, as well as a blatant fallacious effort to avoid all the evidence I have given to support the orthodox and scriptural definitions to support that true nature Christ came in, and is indeed a doubly fallacious effort to produce a rabbit trail tactic while trying to reason toward a conclusion that amounts to a heretical view of Jesus Christ nature being a mere illusion of true humanity and sadly discounts the work of Christ to overcome sin in that nature.

I‘ve asked you to refute my (and the orthodox/scriptural) definition of humanity or define yours according to the baseless and unsupported conclusion you need to create about the nature of Christ to be pre-fallen “Adam” (humanity) in order to protect your systematic theology presuppositions, but your only focus is to desperately try to fabricate and come up with a definition of “Adam” that was before even the need of redemption.

Jesus was before Adam (humanity) period. He came through the Holy Spirit in real time in the flesh and blood form of true humanity that needed redemption as the seed of Abraham to fulfill the promise in faith. In faith and perfect obedience to the Father He overcame the death of Adam (humanity) in the true human nature but your conclusion would have Him in a meaningless quest to save some pre-fallen Adam with a nature that had not yet died and was rather now subject to a nature with acquired attributes that could not avoid but to sin and remain lost.

It seems merely another illusion you carry is that you have some kind of gotcha question above…:rolleyes:

You have more problems than I can count with your efforts. To start with…:Rolleyes


…nevermind, if you ain’t got the point yet there is no sense in spending my time repeating myself, I'm going to go wash my Jeep. :Smile

So your non-answer is your answer. O O
 

JonC

Moderator
Moderator
Okay, did the first Adam represent the last Adam or vice versa?
The first man, Adam, became a living being. The last Adam became a life-giving spirit. But it is not the spiritual that is first but the natural, and then the spiritual. The first man, Adam, was from the earth, a man of dust. The second man is from heaven. As was Adam, the man of dust, so also are those who are of the dust. And as is Christ, the man of heaven, so also are those who are of heaven. Just as we have borne the image of the man of dust, we shall also bear the image of the man of heaven.
 

JonC

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Moderator
As soon as Adam and Eve heard God's voice after rebelling against Him, they left lickety-split. They knew they had sinned and fled. That, imo, constitutes a fallen human nature. Before sin, there was no need of running and hiding, as they were in daily communion with God.
Absolutely. They certainly did sin. But if the nature of things is correct (that flesh yields flesh, spirit yields spirit) and the fruits evidence the nature (for example see Matthew 7, Galatians 5, James 1, etc.) then the Fall (Adam's sin through which death entered the world) demonstrated that Adam was also created short of the glory of God. He yielded to his nature rather than God's will.
 

JonC

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So Adam predates Christ? Christ is not eternal?

Does the following imply that Adam predates Christ or that Christ is not eternal?

1 Cor 15: 45 Thus it is written, “The first man Adam became a living being”; the last Adam became a life-giving spirit. 46 But it is not the spiritual that is first but the natural, and then the spiritual. 47 The first man was from the earth, a man of dust; the second man is from heaven. 48 As was the man of dust, so also are those who are of the dust, and as is the man of heaven, so also are those who are of heaven.49 Just as we have borne the image of the man of dust, we shall also bear the image of the man of heaven.

Of course not. It is not the spiritual that is first but the nature, and then the spiritual (here we are speaking of the resurrection of the body). We are born of flesh - i.e., we have born the image of Adam, but we will also bear the image of Christ.
 

SovereignGrace

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Absolutely. They certainly did sin. But if the nature of things is correct (that flesh yields flesh, spirit yields spirit) and the fruits evidence the nature (for example see Matthew 7, Galatians 5, James 1, etc.) then the Fall (Adam's sin through which death entered the world) demonstrated that Adam was also created short of the glory of God. He yielded to his nature rather than God's will.

They were made sinless, they were also made fallible.
 

JonC

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They were made sinless, they were also made fallible.
My personal belief (what I believe Scripture says of man) is that man, while created in God's image, was also created less than God. When we rely on our own righteousness (as Adam did in the Garden) we sin. We simply fall short of the glory of God. We can do what is right in our own eyes and still be wrong in terms of God's standard. When we take our eyes off of God to look upon ourselves then we sin. Not because we have a fallen human nature but because our created nature is less than God.

My point is that nowhere does Scripture state or imply that Adam's nature itself changed except perhaps when he "became like God" knowing good and evil. And even here I don't think the Bible is speaking of a change in nature.

Part of our separation on this issue is one of definition and expression (we largely believe the same regarding human nature as it is now) but another part is legitimate disagreement. Such is life.
 

SovereignGrace

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My personal belief (what I believe Scripture says of man) is that man, while created in God's image, was also created less than God. When we rely on our own righteousness (as Adam did in the Garden) we sin. We simply fall short of the glory of God. We can do what is right in our own eyes and still be wrong in terms of God's standard. When we take our eyes off of God to look upon ourselves then we sin. Not because we have a fallen human nature but because our created nature is less than God.

My point is that nowhere does Scripture state or imply that Adam's nature itself changed except perhaps when he "became like God" knowing good and evil. And even here I don't think the Bible is speaking of a change in nature.

Part of our separation on this issue is one of definition and expression (we largely believe the same regarding human nature as it is now) but another part is legitimate disagreement. Such is life.

Well, Adam was made in the image of God, and we are made in the marred image of God through Adam.[Genesis 5:3] I believe that when that image became marred, it not only afected the outer fleshly man, but also the spiritual inner man. The fall of Adam caused us all to be dead in sin. That, imo, shows a change in our nature as well.
 

JonC

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Well, Adam was made in the image of God, and we are made in the marred image of God through Adam.[Genesis 5:3] I believe that when that image became marred, it not only after the outer fleshly man, but also the spiritual inner man. The fall of Adam caused us all to be dead in sin. That, imo, shows a change in our nature as well.
The prohibition on murder is based on man being created in God's image in Genesis 9:6. 1 Corinthians 11:7 also reaches back to this principle in regards to the family structure (as man, i.e., male, being created in God's image). James 3:9 also reaches back to the Imageo Dei when James condemns cursing man because we are made in God's image.

When we say that Adam had a son in his (Adam's) image this is not, IMHO, a shift from man being made in the image of God (as evidenced by the passages I just provided). Rather, this is what it means that "like begats like". We are all sons of Adam, made in the image of God as Adam was created in the image of God.

That said, I understand the teaching that the Fall marred the image of God in mankind. Love becomes lust, justness becomes anger, etc. We see the same things within humanity. You attribute it to a "fallen nature" or a "marred image of God" while I attribute it to turning to one's own righteousness (to human nature) rather than to God.

The difference, I suppose, is that where you see an inability based on a fallen nature I see an inability based on the human will. We look to ourselves, our human natures, when we should be looking to God.
 
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