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Jesus cn the same physical flesh Adam had when created, one without a sin nature!Did Jesus truly "share in our infirmities"? Was he flesh in the sense he had a human nature as is common to man, or was he human in a different way (a different kind of humanity from us)?
But Jesus was not human like we are human...correct?Jesus same in the same physical flesh Adam had when created, one without a sin nature!
neither would have adam before he sinned and fell!But Jesus was not human like we are human...correct?
By this I mean Jesus didn't get sick, catch a cold, and couldn't die unless he was killed.....right?
This is a hypothetical statement. Have you ever considered that the Fall was always a part of God's plan?neither would have adam before he sinned and fell!
Have you ever considered that the Fall was always a part of God's plan?
Did Jesus truly "share in our infirmities"?
Actually, I was thinking of Isaiah 53 and Hebrews 4:15. Isaiah presents Christ as sharing in our weaknesses while the author of Hebrews looks to Jesus as truly being one of us as a qualification for his office of High Priest.What was Paul referring to here?:
24 Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and fill up on my part that which is lacking of the afflictions of Christ in my flesh for his body`s sake, which is the church; Phil 1
I'm not saying to plan sin. I am saying that the Fall was a part of God's plan (not that God caused Adam to sin but that Adam was never designed to be above the need of a spiritual birth).Did not our Lord teach quite extensively that to plan sin.....is sin.
While we don't know all, I think that there is enough revealed in Scripture to answer the OP. Here is what we do know:We don't know the o/p answers because we aren't told the details.
He was made flesh and dwelt among us.
Jesus can share in our weaknesses, as he was fully human, but he did not need to have the sin nature that we all have to do that!Actually, I was thinking of Isaiah 53 and Hebrews 4:15. Isaiah presents Christ as sharing in our weaknesses while the author of Hebrews looks to Jesus as truly being one of us as a qualification for his office of High Priest.
Yes, as he was not tied into the corrupted flesh all of us have as the result of the Fall!Jesus came to us in the flesh (sarx) but He did come to us in a manner in which none of us did.
Luke 1:35 And the angel answered and said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Highest will overshadow you; therefore, also, that Holy One who is to be born will be called the Son of God.
The problem is that you have not shown, via Scripture, that there is even such a thing as a "sin nature". Scripture speaks of two natures - the flesh and the spirit. We do not sin because we have a "sin nature" but because, when tempted by the things that appeals to the flesh, we choose the flesh (we choose ourselves). Is there a reason you can offer to adopt your hypothesis over James 1?Jesus can share in our weaknesses, as he was fully human, but he did not need to have the sin nature that we all have to do that!
In fact, if Jesus was born with the same sin nature all of us have after the fall, He would not qualify to be the Messiah!
Oh yes he/we have, you just choose to take a different view of these proof texts.The problem is that you have not shown, via Scripture, that there is even such a thing as a "sin nature". Scripture speaks of two natures - the flesh and the spirit. We do not sin because we have a "sin nature" but because, when tempted by the things that appeals to the flesh, we choose the flesh (we choose ourselves). Is there a reason you can offer to adopt your hypothesis over James 1?
First, I am not altering your interpretation - I'm rejecting it (not those passages, but your interpretation of those passages).Oh yes he/we have, you just choose to take a different view of these proof texts.
Romans 5:12 (Young's Literal Translation)
Because of this, even as through one man the sin did enter into the world, and through the sin the death; and thus to all men the death did pass through, for that all did sin;
Not "all will sin" but "all did sin", the "did sin" is aorist tense along with "death did pass", we all "did sin".
The result:
Psalm 51:5 Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.
Deny all you wish, alter our interpretation all you wish, we disagree.
let the readers decide.
Did Jesus truly "share in our infirmities"?
Was he flesh in the sense he had a human nature as is common to man, or was he human in a different way (a different kind of humanity from us)?
But Jesus was not human like we are human...correct?
By this I mean Jesus didn't get sick, catch a cold, and couldn't die unless he was killed.....right?
This is a hypothetical statement. Have you ever considered that the Fall was always a part of God's plan?
To illustrate, God placed a rainbow in the sky as a sign of his promise. BUT we can't say that had God not made the promise there would be no rainbow.
What was Paul referring to here?:
24 Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and fill up on my part that which is lacking of the afflictions of Christ in my flesh for his body`s sake, which is the church; Col 1